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iSeries word scramble: Backup & recovery

How well do you know common iSeries backup & recovery terms? Test your iSeries smarts with our iSeries word scramble. See if you can unscramble these 20 iSeries-related words.

1. PKUABC
2. TESROER
3. ECRMAIL RGSEAOT
4. RMSB
5. RDTSAIES
6. OG SEAV
7. EBCJTSO
8. DSKI OCETROITPN
9. OEYRMM
10. TRAGOES OOPL
11. ETPA
12. NPIWGOER NDWO
13. FUROCNAIGIOTN
14. ARFEULI
15. GEDDMAA BEOSTJC
16. LSERPFIO
17. RBALRIY CTSEJOB
18. SCESCA SPHTA
19. ILDFEA IKDSS
20. EJNDLUAOR REIVCESRE

Quiz: iSeries backup and recovery commands

When it comes to iSeries backup and recovery, are you in command of your commands? Do you know the difference between the "GO SAVE" and the "SAV command?"

By taking this quiz, you'll not only sharpen your backup and recovery skills, you'll be up-to-date on important backup tricks if you read the associated tips.

Here's a hint. These are the commands you can choose from. Good luck!

SAV
SAVOBJ
SAVSYS
SAVCFG
SAVCHGOBJ
SAVSECDTA
SAVSAVFDTA
SAVDLO
SAVLIB
GO SAVE

   1. Use the _________ command to save the following security data: User profiles, private authorities, authorization lists and authority holders.
      Your answer:

      See answer
   2.

      The _________ command saves a copy of each changed object or group of objects located in the same library.
      Your answer:

      See answer
   3.

      The _________ command saves a copy of the licensed internal code and the QSYS library in a format compatible with the installation of the iSeries.
      Your answer:

      See answer

   4.

      Using the _________ command is a simple way to make sure that you have a good backup of your entire server.
      Your answer:

      See answer

   5.

      The _________ command saves the contents of a save file to tape, optical, or diskette media. This command saves the save data in the save file to the device in a way that allows the user to restore objects directly from the device.
      Your answer:

      See answer
   6.

      The _________ command saves a copy of a single object or a group of objects located in the same library.
      Your answer:

      See answer
   7. The _________ command saves copies of the following: Documents, folders and distribution objects (mail).
      Your answer:

      See answer
   8.

      The _________ command saves all configuration and system resource management (SRM) objects without requiring a system in a restricted state.
      Your answer:

      See answer
   9.

      The _________ command saves a copy of one or more objects that can be used in the integrated file system.
      Your answer:

      See answer

  10. The _________ command saves the entire library; this includes the library description, the object descriptions, and the contents of the objects in the library.
      Your answer:

      See answer

Backup school: Quiz

Question #1

ERD stands for:

a. End Recovery Data
b. Emergency Read Defragmentation
c. Emergency Recovery Disk
d. Emergency Restore Data

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #2

Users' data is best kept on the:

a. Partition closest to the tape drive
b. Second partition or drive
c. The first partition
d. None of the above

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #3

Two choices for disk imaging discussed in Lesson 5 are:

a.Centralized and decentralized
b. Localized and centralized
c. Decentralized and degragmented
d. Localized and defragmented

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #4

Imaging is used to:
a. Perform a typical backup
b. Archive old data for compliance purposes
c. Restore data in the event of a disaster
d. All of the above

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #5

Dorian says these die more than anything else in any organization worldwide:

a. Software
b. Employee stock options
c. Hard drives
d. Routers

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #6

ATA and newer SATA drives are not built to last as long as:

a. RAID arrays
b. SCSI drives
c. 10 GB drives
d. None of the above

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #7

Although hardware RAID controllers are much faster than software RAID controllers, Dorian says they are still much more:

a. Reliable
b. Bulky
c. Expensive
d. Secure

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #8

What is JBOD?

a. Just a Bunch of Disks
b. Jobs Bundled on Disks
c. Justified Batches on Delivery
d. None of the above

Click to see if you are correct!

Quiz : Backup & recovery

Question #31

This is a method of offloading backup procedures from a server so that the time ordinarily devoted to backup functions can be used to carry out other server tasks.

a. serverless backup
b. LAN-free backup
c. mirrored backup
d. timed backup
e. hard backup

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #32

This is a system for archiving data such as business records and reports to one or more optical disks in a compressed but easily retrievable format.

a. EDM (Electronic Document Management)
b. COLD (Computer Output to Laser Disk)
c. imaging system
d. compression
e. microfiche

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #33

This is a magnetic tape and drive system used for computer data storage and archiving. It can hold 40 gigabytes (GB) of data when compression is used, and can transfer data at speeds of up to 3 megabytes per second (Mbps) without compression and 6 Mbps with compression.

a. Mammoth
b. advanced intelligent tape (AIT)
c. linear tape-open (LTO)
d. digital linear tape (DLT)
e. REO speedwagon (REO)

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #34

This is a way of recording information onto magnetic tape. It was used to record TV programs in the 1960s, and has been used in high-end tape-backup products. It's also the same technology used in digital audio tapes.

a. quadruplex machine
b. linear
c. optical
d. helical scan
e. Vera (Vision Electronic Recording Apparatus)

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #35

This data replication technique ensures data integrity because updates to directories and bitmaps are constantly written to a serial log on disk before the original disk log is updated. In the event of a system failure, the data on the disk can be restored to its pre-crash configuration.

a. warehousing
b. scoreboarding
c. journaling
d. mining
e. cloning

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #36

SearchStorage.com expert W. Curtis Preston identifies six main steps to identifying any good disaster recovery plan. Which of the following is not one of them?

a. define unacceptable loss
b. watch your server speed
c. organize everything
d. document what you have
e. test test test

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #37

Backup and recovery expert W. Curtis Preston says there are five golden rules for backup. Which of the following is not one of these rules?

a. Back it up or give it up.
b. If it has not been backed up, it cannot be recovered.
c. If it has not been backed up off-site, it will not survive a fire.
d. If it has not been tested with a recovery, it is not a backup.
e. Tape rules -- it's the only way to go for backup.

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #38

Disk mirroring provides data protection in the case of disk failure because data is constantly updated to both disks, where each relies upon a common controller. However, there is an inherent problem in disk mirroring. What is it?

a. Drive reliability is eliminating the need for mirroring
b. Access to data is threatened if the controller fails
c. Data can't be mirrored remotely
d. Mirroring can't handle planned outages
e. Data sets can't be kept in synch

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #39

This is one method of ensuring data availability in which every write written to the primary side is written "in-order" to the remote side before the application sees an "I/O complete" message.

a. timed backup
b. local backup
c. synchronous replication
d. asynchronous replication
e. duplication

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #40

Which of the following is a disaster recovery don't?

a. Always back up data catalogs and directories
b. Run similarly designed backup and storage environments
c. Synchronize desktop and laptop data to the server
d. Place backup facilities near each other
e. Have monitoring, job execution and security features prepared

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 25

1) An archive is a collection of computer files that have been packaged together for backup, to transport to some other location, for saving away from the computer so that more hard disk storage can be made available, or for some other purpose. An archive can include a simple list of files or files organized under a directory or catalog structure (depending on how a particular program supports archiving).

On personal computers with the Windows operating system, WinZip is a popular program that lets you create an archive (a single file that holds a number of files that you plan to save to another medium or send someone electronically) or extract its files. WinZip also compresses the files that are archived, but compression is not required to create an archive. A WinZip archive has the file name suffix ".zip".

In Unix-based operating systems, the tar (tape archive) utility can be used to create an archive or extract files from one. On mainframe operating systems such as IBM's MVS and OS/390, procedures for archiving or backing up files are often automated as a daily operation.

2) On Web sites as well as in libraries, an archive is a collection of individual publications that are often cataloged or listed and made accessible in some way. Magazines, journals, and newspapers with Web sites sometimes refer to their back issues as an archive.

3) Web and File Transfer Protocol sites that provide software programs that can be downloaded sometimes refer to the list of downloadable files as an archive or as archives.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 24

A disaster recovery plan (DRP) - sometimes referred to as a business continuity plan (BCP) or business process contingency plan (BPCP) - describes how an organization is to deal with potential disasters. Just as a disaster is an event that makes the continuation of normal functions impossible, a disaster recovery plan consists of the precautions taken so that the effects of a disaster will be minimized and the organization will be able to either maintain or quickly resume mission-critical functions. Typically, disaster recovery planning involves an analysis of business processes and continuity needs; it may also include a significant focus on disaster prevention.

Ask your questions about disaster recovery at ITKnowledgeExchange.com

Disaster recovery is becoming an increasingly important aspect of enterprise computing. As devices, systems, and networks become ever more complex, there are simply more things that can go wrong. As a consequence, recovery plans have also become more complex. According to Jon William Toigo (the author of Disaster Recovery Planning). For example, fifteen or twenty years ago if there was a threat to systems from a fire, a disaster recovery plan might consist of powering down the mainframe and other computers before the sprinkler system came on, disassembling components, and subsequently drying circuit boards in the parking lot with a hair dryer. Current enterprise systems tend to be too large and complicated for such simple and hands-on approaches, however, and interruption of service or loss of data can have serious financial impact, whether directly or through loss of customer confidence.

Appropriate plans vary from one enterprise to another, depending on variables such as the type of business, the processes involved, and the level of security needed. Disaster recovery planning may be developed within an organization or purchased as a software application or a service. It is not unusual for an enterprise to spend 25% of its information technology budget on disaster recovery.

Nevertheless, the consensus within the DR industry is that most enterprises are still ill-prepared for a disaster. According to the Disaster Recovery site, "Despite the number of very public disasters , still only about 50 percent of companies report having a disaster recovery plan. Of those that do, nearly half have never tested their plan, which is tantamount to not having one at all."

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 23

Disk arrays

A storage array provides an independent, standalone platform where disk arrays can be gathered into extremely large groups -- sometimes hundreds of disks. This chapter of our Disk Storage All-In-One Guide looks at the wide range of disk array types, along with product and buyer's advice.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 22

Storage provisioning is the process of assigning storage, usually in the form of server disk drive space, in order to optimize the performance of a storage area network (SAN). Traditionally, this has been done by the SAN administrator, and it can be a tedious process.

Storage provisioning is done in steps, which must be followed in a specific order. The storage must be configured for optimum SAN performance. Logical unit numbers (LUNs) must be assigned within the network. The administrator must be certain that the data storage and recovery routes will be available to all users when needed. Alternate routes must be put in place that can keep the SAN functional in the event of partial failure. The administrator must make sure that the SAN can accommodate expected future expansion. After everything has been connected and all the programs have been installed, the entire SAN must be tested before sensitive and valuable data is committed to it.

In recent years, automated storage provisioning, also called auto-provisioning, programs have become available. These programs can reduce the time required for the storage provisioning process, and can free the administrator from the often distasteful task of performing this chore manually.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 21

A green data center is a repository for the storage, management, and dissemination of data in which the mechanical, lighting, electrical and computer systems are designed for maximum energy efficiency and minimum environmental impact. The construction and operation of a green data center includes advanced technologies and strategies. Here are some examples:

    * Minimizing the footprints of the buildings
    * The use of low-emission building materials, carpets and paints
    * Sustainable landscaping
    * Waste recycling
    * Installation of catalytic converters on backup generators
    * The use of alternative energy technologies such as photovoltaics, heat pumps, and evaporative cooling
    * The use of hybrid or electric company vehicles

Building and certifying a green data center or other facility can be expensive up front, but long-term cost savings can be realized on operations and maintenance. Another advantage is the fact that green facilities offer employees a healthy, comfortable work environment. In addition, green facilities enhance relations with local communities.

There is growing pressure from environmentalists and, increasingly, the general public for governments to offer green incentives: monetary support for the creation and maintenance of ecologically responsible technologies.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 20

There are endless regulatory requirements for information retention, and it seems like there are more unknowns in this aspect of storage than there are in the entire field of medicine. Based on what I'm hearing, this has confused, frustrated or otherwise caught many storage administrators off guard. There is so much ambiguity, people don't know where to start, what technologies to implement and whether they're even in compliance.

Related information

HP revamps RISS, unveils new archiving products

Using CAS for e-mail archiving

Records retention program
   
If you've fallen into this legal black hole, you're not alone. Even the lawyers and regulators who have written these "rules" acknowledge confusion associated with what electronic information to keep and what to destroy. There are so many variables involved and the rules are often open to interpretation. One thing is for sure though -- if you're creating or trying to manage an information retention strategy, there are some definite "gotchas" that you need to be aware of to keep yourself out of the boardroom hot seat and your managers out of the regulators' crosshairs. Keeping in mind that this isn't legal advice -- rather, real-world observations and experiences -- here are my unlucky 13:

   1. Don't forget that e-mail and instant messaging are business records -- a common oversight, especially in smaller organizations that still have to comply with the same regulations as the big dogs.
   2. Don't overlook other information that may be considered business records as well such as policies, procedures and audit reports.
   3. Don't believe the myth that you if you just destroy everything after it's no longer needed, you'll be fine. The organization may very well need it in order to defend itself in future audits and litigation.
   4. Don't assume that the retention requirement for all business-related information is the commonly-quoted "7 years." There are a lot of variables depending on the industry, type of organization and type of information. Based on my informal research, most lawyers that understand information retention agree that business records need to be kept indefinitely.
   5. Don't ever assume that you or the IT department has the capacity (manpower, knowledge, budget, etc.) to solely manage such a critical function. Information retention is a business issue and needs to be treated as such. That's why getting legal -- and ideally an overall IT governance committee -- involved is a must.
   6. Don't assume that limiting share space, size of user mailboxes, etc. will enforce retention or avoid any problems that may crop up related to it. Users will almost always adapt and find ways around your controls.
   7. Don't ever assume or expect that users can be trusted to do the right thing -- especially when it comes to complying with and helping enforce your organization's information retention policy.
   8. Don't make the mistake of leaving current retention procedures in place (such as suspending tape or disk backup rotations) in the event of a pending investigation, audit or other litigation. This can lead to unwanted charges of destruction of evidence.
   9. Don't assume that just because your retention policy says that everything is destroyed after a certain period of time that it actually is. Employees, auditors and others may have their own archives that can come back to help or haunt you in the future.
  10. Don't assume that just because you have access to archived information that'll you're going to be able to restore it within a reasonable amount of time. You need a solid set of procedures, so that you can meet legal demands as quickly and efficiently as possible while juggling all your other storage administration duties.
  11. Don't take a "delete everything" stance -- it's too risky and it's hard to prove you're not trying to cover something up. On the other hand, don't necessarily take a "save everything" stance. Not all information is equal. Saving everything can certainly help ensure that you've covered all your bases, but it can open up your organization to discovery risks, and perhaps worst of all, massive expenditures storing and administering everything long term. Find a middle ground when possible.
  12. Don't go to your lawyer, ask for a retention policy and accept that he or she will know what to draw up for you. I've seen way too many cases in which lawyers who are not IT and compliance-savvy use a generic template that has absolutely no bearing on what the organization actually needs. This stresses the need to find legal counsel who knows this part of the law for your specific industry and business type.
  13. And finally, Don't overlook the five tenets of information retention:
          * It's not just laws and regulations you've got to worry about -- it's also dealing with lawsuits and discovery requests
          * You really do need an information retention policy
          * You need to create and be able to demonstrate that you've got secure storage environment for your electronic business assets
          * Information needs to be searchable and retrievable in a timely manner
          * Time equals money: discovery costs (especially those related to e-mail or other business assets archived on backup tapes) can be huge and information often takes a long time to retrieve and sort through. This is especially true if you don't have the proper retention and archiving tools in place.

The lawmakers may have had good intentions when developing information retention requirements, but I'm convinced they didn't think about the long-term complexities involved and costs associated with what it really takes to do this. The reality is that the laws and regulations are here and we've got to learn to manage them. If you keep in mind what I've outlined above, survey your organization's legal landscape to determine what's really required and team up with the right people to manage information retention, you can sleep at night knowing that you're at least going to save some skin off your back.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

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Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

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Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 17

Storage encryption is the use of encryption/decryption of backed-up and archived data, both in transit and on storage media. Storage encryption is a feature of storage security that is gaining favor among enterprises that use storage area networks (SANs).

The main advantage of storage encryption in a SAN is the fact that it hardens the core of the network at relatively low cost. Multiple ciphers can be used for individual files, folders, or data volumes. In addition, two encryption arrangements can be used, one for data in transit and the other for stored and archived data. The ciphers, and the corresponding decryption keys, should be changed frequently.

Two criteria are said to help determine the potential effectiveness of any storage security plan. First, the cost of implementing the plan should be a small fraction of the value of the protected data. Second, it should cost a potential hacker more, in terms of money and/or time, to compromise the system than the protected data is worth. In this respect, storage encryption is often seen as an ideal solution. However, it is not completely foolproof, and is best used with other security measures such as hardware zoning. Because it works proactively, a relatively simple storage encryption arrangement can pay for itself in a short time. Storage encryption is an important element in what is referred to as deperimeterization.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 16

This can often be confusing once you read vendors' marketing materials. Simply stated, unified storage [or multiprotocol storage] refers to a single storage system that can support both file access and block access. That means I can use it for file systems and storing file data; or I can use an application that does block-based I/O right to that storage system. That [unified or multiprotocol] storage system is really operating in two modes: block and file.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

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Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 14

There's a lot of confusion around file virtualization, and virtualization in general, because the term virtualization can mean so many different things. But, when we talk about file virtualization, the focus is on file-level activities rather than block- (storage) level activities, like what you'd have in a Fibre Channel, iSCSI or direct-attached storage. But, we can break it down even further into three main areas: abstraction, emulation and aggregation. Abstraction refers to things like data movement, migration or copying. Emulation lets other devices seamlessly integrate with other applications or platforms. Aggregation lets one device sit in front of and combine multiple data streams or features.

The confusion comes in the notion of a global or clustered namespace that is actually a virtualized namespace -- think of it as a virtualized directory. As an example, consider DNS within a Windows file sharing or CIFS environment. Within a UNIX environment, there's an NIS implementation. This is the ability to see, in a single namespace, all the different file systems that are a part of that large "address space." As another example, the Internet may use a ".com" as a global designation for a URL. Don't confuse this with a global file system.

Ultimately, file virtualization is the ability to virtualize a file-type environment. This can be done by replication, migration, data movement or any number of other file-centric features. The general features are the same as you'd see in a block environment, such as transparent data movement and device emulation for interoperability; the difference in file virtualization is that you're dealing with files rather than blocks.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 13

Backup is the activity of copying files or databases so that they will be preserved in case of equipment failure or other catastrophe. Backup is usually a routine part of the operation of large businesses with mainframes as well as the administrators of smaller business computers. For personal computer users, backup is also necessary but often neglected. The retrieval of files you backed up is called restoring them.

Personal computer users can consider both local backup and Internet backup.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 12

Continuous data protection (CDP), also called continuous backup, is a storage system in which all the data in an enterprise is backed up whenever any change is made. In effect, CDP creates an electronic journal of complete storage snapshots, one storage snapshot for every instant in time that data modification occurs.

A major advantage of CDP is the fact that it preserves a record of every transaction that takes place in the enterprise. In addition, if the system becomes infected with a virus or Trojan, or if a file becomes mutilated or corrupted and the problem is not discovered until some time later, it is always possible to recover the most recent clean copy of the affected file. A CDP system with disk storage offers data recovery in a matter of seconds -- much less time than is the case with tape backups or archives. Installation of CDP hardware and programming is straightforward and simple and does not put existing data at risk.

The market for CDP products is expected to grow as businesses discover the advantages of maintaining a continuous journal of backups or archives generated over time. This is especially true for enterprises in which data changes often, the amount of stored data is large, or serious injury to the business could result from lost data, damaged files, or extended downtime.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 11

Tiered storage is the assignment of different categories of data to different types of storage media in order to reduce total storage cost. Categories may be based on levels of protection needed, performance requirements, frequency of use, and other considerations. Since assigning data to particular media may be an ongoing and complex activity, some vendors provide software for automatically managing the process based on a company-defined policy.

As an example of tiered storage, tier 1 data (such as mission-critical, recently accessed, or top secret files) might be stored on expensive and high-quality media such as double-parity RAIDs (redundant arrays of independent disks). Tier 2 data (such as financial, seldom-used, or classified files) might be stored on less expensive media in conventional storage area networks (SANs). As the tier number increased, cheaper media could be used. Thus, tier 3 in a 3-tier system might contain event-driven, rarely used, or unclassified files on recordable compact discs (CD-Rs) or tapes.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

Virtualization is the pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console. Storage virtualization is commonly used in a storage area network (SAN). The management of storage devices can be tedious and time-consuming. Storage virtualization helps the storage administrator perform the tasks of backup, archiving, and recovery more easily, and in less time, by disguising the actual complexity of the SAN.

Users can implement virtualization with software applications or by using hardware and software hybrid appliances. The technology can be placed on different levels of a storage area network.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

Data deduplication is one of the hottest topics in backup right now, which means it's awash with vendor spin and hype. This Special Report explores how data deduplication products are shaping up in the marketplace, who the key suppliers are and what storage managers should be aware of when evaluating these products.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

Serial-attached SCSI (SAS) is a method used in accessing computer peripheral devices that employs a serial (one bit at a time) means of digital data transfer over thin cables. The method is specified in the American National Standard Institute standard called Serial-attached SCSI (Small Computer System Interface), also known as ANSI/INCITS 376-2003. In the business enterprise, serial-attached SCSI is especially of interest for access to mass storage devices, particularly external hard drives.

Serial-attached SCSI offers advantages over older parallel technologies. The cables are thinner, and the connectors are less bulky. Serial data transfer allows the use of longer cables than parallel data transfer. Problems related to crosstalk are less likely in serial interfaces than in parallel interfaces, because there are fewer conductors in the cables. The hardware for serial interfaces is less costly than the hardware for equivalent parallel interfaces.

SAS offers data transfer rates in excess of 3 gigabits per second (Gbps) with potential rates of 10 Gbps or more. Serial-attached SCSI is said to offer an ideal solution for businesses with substantial storage, backup, and archiving demands.

Devices that employ SAS are compatible with Serial ATA (Advanced Technology Attachment) devices. In addition, SAS products are compatible with devices that employ earlier SCSI technologies. External disk drives, host adapters, and expanders were the first devices to employ SAS. The technology is expected to expand to printers, scanners, digital cameras, and other peripherals.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

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A storage area network (SAN) is a high-speed special-purpose network (or subnetwork) that interconnects different kinds of data storage devices with associated data servers on behalf of a larger network of users. Typically, a storage area network is part of the overall network of computing resources for an enterprise. A storage area network is usually clustered in close proximity to other computing resources such as IBM z990 mainframes but may also extend to remote locations for backup and archival storage, using wide area network carrier technologies such as ATM or SONET.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

RAID, as you've most likely noticed, is changing in the enterprise. Fibre Channel (FC) disks still provide the high-reliability and performance that they are renowned for, but a greater selection of disk types and advances in storage hardware are impacting the way that IT departments deploy RAID. Rapid growth and larger drive capacities are also influencing RAID rebuild times and constraining performance in some environments. Storage administrators must understand the changes that are taking place, and position their organizations to make the most of RAID technology. This article examines the effect of new disk types on RAID deployments, outlines the changing implementation issues and problems that you can expect, and highlights the future trends of this essential storage practice.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

The logical unit described here is different than the logical unit of IBM's Systems Network Architecture (SNA).

A logical unit number (LUN) is a unique identifier used on a SCSI bus that enables it to differentiate between up to eight separate devices (each of which is a logical unit). Each LUN is a unique number that identifies a specific logical unit, which may be an end user, a file, or an application program.

A SCSI (Small System Computer Interface) is a parallel interface, that can have up to eight devices all attached through a single cable; the cable and the host (computer) adapter make up the SCSI bus. The bus allows the interchange of information between devices independently of the host. In the SCSI program, each device is assigned a unique number, which is either a number between 0 and 7 for an 8-bit (narrow) bus, or between 8 and 16 for a 16-bit (wide) bus. The devices that request input/output (I/O) operations are initiators and the devices that perform these operations are targets. Each target has the capacity to connect up to eight additional devices through its own controller; these devices are the logical units, each of which is assigned a unique number for identification to the SCSI controller for command processing.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

iSCSI is Internet SCSI (Small Computer System Interface), an Internet Protocol (IP)-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities, developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). By carrying SCSI commands over IP networks, iSCSI is used to facilitate data transfers over intranets and to manage storage over long distances. The iSCSI protocol is among the key technologies expected to help bring about rapid development of the storage area network (SAN) market, by increasing the capabilities and performance of storage data transmission. Because of the ubiquity of IP networks, iSCSI can be used to transmit data over local area networks (LANs), wide area networks (WANs), or the Internet and can enable location-independent data storage and retrieval.

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

Fibre Channel is a technology for transmitting data between computer devices at data rates of up to 4 Gbps (and 10 Gbps in the near future). Fibre Channel is especially suited for connecting computer servers to shared storage devices and for interconnecting storage controllers and drives. Since Fibre Channel is three times as fast, it has begun to replace the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) as the transmission interface between servers and clustered storage devices. Fibre channel is more flexible; devices can be as far as ten kilometers (about six miles) apart if optical fiber is used as the physical medium. Optical fiber is not required for shorter distances, however, because Fibre Channel also works using coaxial cable and ordinary telephone twisted pair.

Fibre Channel offers point-to-point, switched, and loop interfaces. It is designed to interoperate with SCSI, the Internet Protocol (IP) and other protocols, but has been criticized for its lack of compatibility - primarily because (like in the early days of SCSI technology) manufacturers sometimes interpret specifications differently and vary their implementations.

Standards for Fibre Channel are specified by the Fibre Channel Physical and Signalling standard, and the ANSI X3.230-1994, which is also ISO 14165-1

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

Serial ATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment or SATA) is a new standard for connecting hard drives into computer systems. As its name implies, SATA is based on serial signaling technology, unlike current IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) hard drives that use parallel signaling.

SATA has several practical advantages over the parallel signaling (also called Parallel ATA or PATA) that has been used in hard drives since the 1980s. SATA cables are more flexible, thinner, and less massive than the ribbon cables required for conventional PATA hard drives. SATA cables can be considerably longer than PATA ribbon cables, allowing the designer more latitude in the physical layout of a system. Because there are fewer conductors (only 7 in SATA as compared with 40 in PATA), crosstalk and electromagnetic interference (EMI) are less likely to be troublesome. The signal voltage is much lower as well (250 mV for SATA as compared with 5 V for PATA).

Top 25 data storage terms quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

Network-attached storage (NAS) is hard disk storage that is set up with its own network address rather than being attached to the department computer that is serving applications to a network's workstation users. By removing storage access and its management from the department server, both application programming and files can be served faster because they are not competing for the same processor resources. The network-attached storage device is attached to a local area network (typically, an Ethernet network) and assigned an IP address. File requests are mapped by the main server to the NAS file server.

In 1968, what computer code did President Lyndon Johnson approve as a national standard?

Exchange Geek-o-Meter ANSWERS

ANSWERS FOR 10

DEFINITION - What is VoIP?

VoIP (voice over IP) is an IP telephony term for a set of facilities used to manage the delivery of voice information over the Internet.VoIP involves sending voice information in digital form in discrete packets rather than by using the traditional circuit-committed protocols of the public switched telephone network (PSTN). A major advantage of VoIP and Internet telephony is that it avoids the tolls charged by ordinary telephone service.

Exchange Geek-o-Meter ANSWERS

ANSWERS FOR 9

Spim is spam delivered through instant messaging (IM) instead of through e-mail messaging. Although less ubiquitous than its e-mail counterpart, spim is reaching more users all the time. According to a report from Ferris Research, 500 million IM spam were sent in 2003, twice the level of 2002. As it becomes more prevalent, spim could impact the business community similarly to the way that spam does now, by consuming corporate resources and creating security problems.

In some ways, IM is an especially useful channel for spammers. For one thing, the immediacy of IM makes users more likely to reflexively click links. Furthermore, because it bypasses anti-virus software and firewalls, IM is an easy means of passing on not only commercial messages, but also viruses and other malware. Meanwhile, government, corporations, and ISPs are united in the fight against spam, with proposed solutions such as e-mail postage and legislation such as the Can-Spam Act of 2003. As anti-spam measures for e-mail are more widely implemented and become more effective, frustrated spammers may increasingly turn to spim.

One way to protect yourself from spim is to block messages from anyone not your buddy list, or to allow messages only from those on a permission list. Here's how to do that in some of the popular IM programs:

    * In the AOL IM program window, select "preferences" on the bottom left hand side. In the Preferences window, elect the "Privacy" category from the list on the left-hand side, and then choose from the options available, such as "Allow only users on my Buddy list."
    * In the Yahoo IM window, under "Login," select "Privacy Settings," and then select "Ignore anyone who is not on my Friends list."
    * In the MSN Messenger window, under "Tools," select "Options," and then click the "Privacy" tab. Click the box by "Only people on my Allow List can see my status and send me messages."

Exchange Geek-o-Meter ANSWERS

ANSWERS FOR 8

MAPI (Messaging Application Program Interface) is a Microsoft Windows program interface that enables you to send e-mail from within a Windows application and attach the document you are working on to the e-mail note. Applications that take advantage of MAPI include word processors, spreadsheets, and graphics applications. MAPI-compatible applications typically include a Send Mail or Send in the File pulldown menu of the application. Selecting one of these sends a request to a MAPI server.

MAPI consists of a standard set of C language functions that are stored in a program library known as a dynamic link library (DLL). Developers who are using Microsoft's Active Server Page (ASP) technology access the MAPI library by using Microsoft's Collaboration Data Objects (CDO). The CDO library comes with Microsoft's Internet Information Server (IIS). MAPI functions can be accessed by Visual Basic developers through a Basic-to-C translation layer.

Eudora, one of the most popular e-mail programs, includes a MAPI server. To activate the Eudora MAPI server, select Options from the Tools pulldown menu and then double-click on MAPI and specify whether MAPI should always be active or whether it should be active only when Eudora is running. Microsoft Exchange and possibly some other programs may require that you turn the MAPI server off when they are in use.

Exchange Geek-o-Meter ANSWERS

ANSWERS FOR 7

An open relay (sometimes called an insecure relay or a third-party relay) is an SMTP e-mail server that allows third-party relay of e-mail messages. By processing mail that is neither for nor from a local user, an open relay makes it possible for an unscrupulous sender to route large volumes of spam. In effect, the owner of the server -- who is typically unaware of the problem -- donates network and computer resources to the sender's purpose. In addition to the financial costs incurred when a spammer hijacks a server, an organization may also suffer system crashes, equipment damage, and loss of business.

In the past, open relays were used intentionally, for example, to facilitate mail relay between the separate closed e-mail systems (such as UUCP or FidoNet) or to allow network administrators to debug mail connectivity issues and route mail around known problems. However, the Internet has expanded enormously since then, and the potential for abuse has expanded accordingly. Spammers have learned that by hijacking open relays, they can in effect "launder" their spam, delivering their unsolicited e-mail while spoofing their identity to make their messages appear to come from a legitimate source.

Spammers are able to locate accessible third-party mail relay servers by using automated tools that are readily available on the Internet. By relaying mail through several open relay mail servers at the same time, it is possible to flood the Internet with large amounts of junk mail in a very short period of time before being detected. Spammers who use third-party mail relays not only damage the reputation of those whose servers they have hijacked, clog networks with junk mail, and frequently crash servers -- they are guilty of breaking the law because technically, they are stealing services.

The Mail Abuse Prevention System (MAPS) is one of several organizations that seeks to control the problem of open relays, though educating the public about the danger, and through publishing a blacklist of organizations whose mail hosts allow third-party relays. The relay feature is a part of all SMTP-based servers, which means that most modern e-mail servers, if unprotected, are vulnerable. According to MAPS, because spammers use automated tools to search the Internet for vulnerable servers, an open relay will eventually be found and used. To avoid allowing spammers free access to their resources -- and to help stem the Internet's flow of spam -- MAPS urges administrators to turn off the relay option on their servers.

Exchange Geek-o-Meter ANSWERS

ANSWERS FOR 6

Gmail (pronounced Gee-mail) is a free Web-based e-mail service currently being tested at Google that provides users with a gigabyte of storage for messages and provides the ability to search for specific messages. The Gmail program also automatically organizes successively related messages into a conversational thread.

According to Google co-founder and president Larry Page, the company was inspired to create Gmail because of a user's letter complaining about problems with existing Web e-mail services, such as the constant need to delete messages to stay within storage limits, and the lack of any searching ability. The two largest Web e-mail providers, Yahoo and Microsoft, allow users four megabytes and two megabytes, respectively, for storing messages. Both services charge a fee for additional storage. Yahoo Mail provides a search capability; Microsoft's Hotmail service does not.

To make Gmail profitable, Google will sell advertising and deliver it to targeted users. The company's software will parse users' messages to determine advertising matches and will occasionally insert appropriate ads in e-mail messages. Some have raised concerns about privacy issues, and the intrusiveness of the ads. However, in a recent interview, Page insisted that there would be strict safeguards in place to protect user information, and that the ads would not be "annoying." Furthermore, although there will be some advertising within messages, the program will be free of more traditional advertising, such as banners or pop-up ads.

Exchange Geek-o-Meter ANSWERS

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Elk Cloner was the first computer virus known to have spread in the wild. In 1982, Richard Skrenta, then fifteen years old, wrote the virus for the Apple II operating system, which was stored on floppy diskettes. When a computer booted from a floppy disk infected with Elk Cloner, the virus would start, and would subsequently copy itself to any uninfected floppy disk that was accessed. Because computers of that time had dual floppy disk drives, and because diskettes were often passed around among friends, the virus was frequently copied. After contagion, every 50th time that a computer booted up, it would display the following text:

     Elk Cloner:  The program with a personality

        It will get on all your disks
          It will infiltrate your chips
            Yes it's Cloner!

        It will stick to you like glue
          It will modify ram too
            Send in the Cloner!

Elk Cloner was not intended to cause damage, but was created as a practical joke. According to WorldHistory.com, the adolescent Skrenta had a penchant for modifying programs so that they stopped working after some code-specified time period had elapsed, at that point displaying some joke text that Skrenta had written. Not surprisingly, the young programmer's friends grew leery of allowing him access to their diskettes. Elk Cloner's capacity to copy itself (the major criterion of a virus) made it possible for Skrenta to continue to annoy his friends without requiring physical access. The virus is reported to have spread widely among his fellow students (and also to his math teacher), thus ensuring Elk Cloner's place in history.

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ANSWERS FOR 4

Defragmentation is the process of locating the noncontiguous fragments of data into which a computer file may be divided as it is stored on a hard disk, and rearranging the fragments and restoring them into fewer fragments or into the whole file. Defragmentation reduces data access time and allows storage to be used more efficiently. Some operating systems automatically defragment storage periodically; others require that the user occasionally use a special utility for this purpose. Windows 98 comes with a built-in defragmenter as a "system tool" that the user can run. Windows NT did not come with a defragmenter because its file system, NTFS, was designed to minimize fragmentation; however, NT users often find one necessary and several vendors provide defragmenters. Windows 2000 comes with a "light" version of the Diskeeper defragmenter; some users (especially corporate users) use Diskeeper or some other full-function defragmentation program to manage storage efficiency and performance. Windows XP comes with a utility called "Disk Defragmenter."

"Defrag" is a short form of the verb to defragment and sometimes the name of the utility used for defragementing, which is also called a defragmenter.

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A back door is a means of access to a computer program that bypasses security mechanisms. A programmer may sometimes install a back door so that the program can be accessed for troubleshooting or other purposes. However, attackers often use back doors that they detect or install themselves, as part of an exploit. In some cases, a worm is designed to take advantage of a back door created by an earlier attack. For example, Nimda gained entrance through a back door left by Code Red.

Whether installed as an administrative tool or a means of attack, a back door is a security risk, because there are always crackers out there looking for any vulnerability to exploit. In her article "Who gets your trust?" security consultant Carole Fennelly uses an analogy to illustrate the situation: "Think of approaching a building with an elaborate security system that does bio scans, background checks, the works. Someone who doesn't have time to go through all that might just rig up a back exit so they can step out for a smoke -- and then hope no one finds out about it."

Exchange Geek-o-Meter ANSWERS

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Active Directory is Microsoft's trademarked directory service, an integral part of the Windows 2000 architecture. Like other directory services, such as Novell Directory Services (NDS), Active Directory is a centralized and standardized system that automates network management of user data, security, and distributed resources, and enables interoperation with other directories. Active Directory is designed especially for distributed networking environments.

Exchange Geek-o-Meter ANSWERS

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The Anna Kournikova VBS.SST computer virus, informally known as "Anna," is a viral worm that uses Visual Basic to infect Windows systems when a user unwittingly opens an e-mail note with an attachment that appears to be a graphic image of Russian tennis star Anna Kournikova. However, when the file is opened, a clandestine code extension enables the worm to copy itself to the Windows directory and then send the file as an attachment to all addresses listed in your Microsoft Outlook e-mail address book.

The virus arrives as e-mail with the following subject, message, and attachment:

Subject: Here you have, ;o)

Message body: Hi: Check This!

Attachment: AnnaKournikova.jpg.vbs

There are a number of variants of the virus that according to Symantec Corp. "have been encoded using a virus-creation kit." Extensions include VBS.Lee-o, VBS.OnTheFly, I-Worm.Lee.o and VBS.WG.Fly worm. If the date in your computer is Jan. 26, the "Anna" virus also causes your Internet browser to open to a Web site in the Netherlands, where the virus appears to have originated.

Although its geographic distribution and presence in the wild are both assessed as high, the Anna virus appears to pose only low-to-medium risk. Researchers say the virus is more of a nuisance than a threat, since it does not damage the systems it infects. SST also is easy to contain and to remove from infected computers.

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

In computers, a virus is a program or programming code that replicates by being copied or initiating its copying to another program, computer boot sector or document. Viruses can be transmitted as attachments to an e-mail note or in a downloaded file, or be present on a diskette or CD. The immediate source of the e-mail note, downloaded file, or diskette you've received is usually unaware that it contains a virus. Some viruses wreak their effect as soon as their code is executed; other viruses lie dormant until circumstances cause their code to be executed by the computer. Some viruses are benign or playful in intent and effect ("Happy Birthday, Ludwig!") and some can be quite harmful, erasing data or causing your hard disk to require reformatting. A virus that replicates itself by resending itself as an e-mail attachment or as part of a network message is known as a worm.

Generally, there are three main classes of viruses:

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

E-mail spoofing is the forgery of an e-mail header so that the message appears to have originated from someone or somewhere other than the actual source. Distributors of spam often use spoofing in an attempt to get recipients to open, and possibly even respond to, their solicitations. Spoofing can be used legitimately. Classic examples of senders who might prefer to disguise the source of the e-mail include a sender reporting mistreatment by a spouse to a welfare agency or a "whistle-blower" who fears retaliation. However, spoofing anyone other than yourself is illegal in some jurisdictions.

E-mail spoofing is possible because Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the main protocol used in sending e-mail, does not include an authentication mechanism. Although an SMTP service extension (specified in IETF RFC 2554) allows an SMTP client to negotiate a security level with a mail server, this precaution is not often taken. If the precaution is not taken, anyone with the requisite knowledge can connect to the server and use it to send messages. To send spoofed e-mail, senders insert commands in headers that will alter message information. It is possible to send a message that appears to be from anyone, anywhere, saying whatever the sender wants it to say. Thus, someone could send spoofed e-mail that appears to be from you with a message that you didn't write.

Although most spoofed e-mail falls into the "nuisance" category and requires little action other than deletion, the more malicious varieties can cause serious problems and security risks. For example, spoofed e-mail may purport to be from someone in a position of authority, asking for sensitive data, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or other personal information -- any of which can be used for a variety of criminal purposes. The Bank of America, eBay, and Wells Fargo are among the companies recently spoofed in mass spam mailings. One type of e-mail spoofing, self-sending spam, involves messages that appear to be both to and from the recipient.

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a protocol that ensures privacy between communicating applications and their users on the Internet. When a server and client communicate, TLS ensures that no third party may eavesdrop or tamper with any message. TLS is the successor to the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).

TLS is composed of two layers: the TLS Record Protocol and the TLS Handshake Protocol. The TLS Record Protocol provides connection security with some encryption method such as the Data Encryption Standard (DES). The TLS Record Protocol can also be used without encryption. The TLS Handshake Protocol allows the server and client to authenticate each other and to negotiate an encryption algorithm and cryptographic keys before data is exchanged.

The TLS protocol is based on Netscape's SSL 3.0 protocol; however, TLS and SSL are not interoperable. The TLS protocol does contain a mechanism that allows TLS implementation to back down to SSL 3.0. The most recent browser versions support TLS. The TLS Working Group, established in 1996, continues to work on the TLS protocol and related applications.

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

A directory harvest attack (DHA) is an attempt to determine the valid e-mail addresses associated with an e-mail server so that they can be added to a spam database.

A directory harvest attack can use either of two methods for harvesting valid e-mail addresses. The first method uses a brute force approach to send a message to all possible alphanumeric combinations that could be used for the username part of an e-mail at the server, up to and including those of length n characters (where n is some preset positive integer such as 15). The second and more selective method involves sending a message to the most likely usernames - for example, for all possible combinations of first initials followed by common surnames. In either case, the e-mail server generally returns a "Not found" reply message for all messages sent to a nonexistent address, but does not return a message for those sent to valid addresses. The DHA program creates a database of all the e-mail addresses at the server that were not returned during the attack.

The DHA approach explains how a new e-mail address can start receiving spam within days or hours after its creation. Various solutions have been developed toward repelling these attacks. Some of the most effective involve slowing down the rate at which the attack can take place, rather than attempting to filter out the entire attack. This can be done by limiting the number of e-mail messages per minute or per hour at which a server can receive messages, legitimate or otherwise. So-called spam filters, programmed to identify character and word combinations typical of spam, can also be effective, although they occasionally reject legitimate messages.

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

Phishing is an e-mail fraud method in which the perpetrator sends out legitimate-looking email in an attempt to gather personal and financial information from recipients. Typically, the messages appear to come from well known and trustworthy Web sites. Web sites that are frequently spoofed by phishers include PayPal, eBay, MSN, Yahoo, BestBuy, and America Online. A phishing expedition, like the fishing expedition it's named for, is a speculative venture: the phisher puts the lure hoping to fool at least a few of the prey that encounter the bait.

Phishers use a number of different social engineering and e-mail spoofing ploys to try to trick their victims. In one fairly typical case before the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), a 17-year-old male sent out messages purporting to be from America Online that said there had been a billing problem with recipients' AOL accounts. The perpetrator's e-mail used AOL logos and contained legitimate links. If recipients clicked on the "AOL Billing Center" link, however, they were taken to a spoofed AOL Web page that asked for personal information, including credit card numbers, personal identification numbers (PINs), social security numbers, banking numbers, and passwords. This information was used for identity theft.

The FTC warns users to be suspicious of any official-looking e-mail message that asks for updates on personal or financial information and urges recipients to go directly to the organization's Web site to find out whether the request is legitimate. If you suspect you have been phished, forward the e-mail to spam@uce.gov or call the FTC help line, 1-877-FTC-HELP.

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

acceptable use policy

An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a policy that a user must agree to follow in order to be provided with access to a network or to the Internet. It is common practice for many businesses and educational facilities to require that employees or students sign an acceptable use policy before being granted a network ID.

When you sign up with an Internet service provider ( ISP ), you will usually be presented with an AUP, which states that you agree to adhere to stipulations such as:

    * Not using the service as part of violating any law
    * Not attempting to break the security of any computer network or user
    * Not posting commercial messages to Usenet groups without prior permission
    * Not attempting to send junk e-mail or spam to anyone who doesn't want to receive it
    * Not attempting to mail bomb a site with mass amounts of e-mail in order to flood their server

Users also typically agree to report any attempt to break into their accounts.

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

Sender ID is Microsoft's proposed e-mail sender authentication protocol designed to protect against domain spoofing and phishing exploits. The Sender ID Framework, as Microsoft calls it, comprises three separate specifications: Sender Policy Framework (SPF), Caller ID for e-mail, and Submitter Optimization. Briefly, here's how it works: The Domain Name System (DNS) maintains SPF records for domains. When an e-mail message is received by the inbound mail server, the server looks up the sending domain's published DNS record and determines whether the sending server's IP address matches the one on record. If the record matches, the e-mail is authenticated and delivered to the recipient; otherwise, the message is either discarded or returned to the sender as bounce e-mail.

Domain spoofing is often used to make recipients think that a fraudulent message comes from a legitimate source; the sender is likely to be phishing (pronounced fishing) for information that will give them access to the recipient's resources, such as credit card numbers, user names, and passwords. These messages often purport to come from well-known companies; AOL, BestBuy, MSN, PayPal, and Yahoo have all been imitated. When the attacker pretends to represent a well-known company, the exploit is sometimes called a brand spoof

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

A spam filter is a program that is used to detect unsolicited and unwanted email and prevent those messages from getting to a user's inbox. Like other types of filtering programs, a spam filter looks for certain criteria on which it bases judgments. For example, the simplest and earliest versions (such as the one available with Microsoft's Hotmail) can be set to watch for particular words in the subject line of messages and to exclude these from the user's inbox. This method is not especially effective, too often omitting perfectly legitimate messages (these are called false positives) and letting actual spam through. More sophisticated programs, such as Bayesian filters or other heuristic filters, attempt to identify spam through suspicious word patterns or word frequency

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

Anonymous e-mail is e-mail that has been directed to a recipient through a third-party server that does not identify the originator of the message.

Email Security ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

S/MIME (Secure Multi-Purpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a secure method of sending e-mail that uses the Rivest-Shamir-Adleman encryption system. S/MIME is included in the latest versions of the Web browsers from Microsoft and Netscape and has also been endorsed by other vendors that make messaging products. RSA has proposed S/MIME as a standard to the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). An alternative to S/MIME is PGP/MIME, which has also been proposed as a standard.

MIME itself, described in the IETF standard called Request for Comments 1521, spells out how an electronic message will be organized. S/MIME describes how encryption information and a digital certificate can be included as part of the message body. S/MIME follows the syntax provided in the Public-Key Cryptography Standard format #7.

Business continuity plan quiz ANSWERS

1)If you answered deciding which of the organization's functions are essential and apportioning the available budget accordingly, you are correct.

2)If you answered disaster recovery plan, you are correct.

3)If you answered business resumption plan, you are correct.

4)If you answered business recovery plan, you are correct.

5)If you answered disk mirroring, you are correct.

6)If you answered disk mirroring, you are correct.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

Server consolidation is an approach to the efficient usage of computer server resources in order to reduce the total number of servers or server locations that an organization requires. The practice developed in response to the problem of server sprawl, a situation in which multiple, under-utilized servers take up more space and consume more resources than can be justified by their workload.

According to Tony Iams, Senior Analyst at D.H. Brown Associates Inc. in Port Chester, NY, servers in many companies typically run at 15-20% of their capacity, which may not be a sustainable ratio in the current economic environment. Businesses are increasingly turning to server consolidation as one means of cutting unnecessary costs and maximizing return on investment (ROI) in the data center. Of 518 respondents in a Gartner Group research study, six percent had conducted a server consolidation project, 61% were currently conducting one, and 28% were planning to do so in the immediate future.

Although consolidation can substantially increase the efficient use of server resources, it may also result in complex configurations of data, applications, and servers that can be confusing for the average user to contend with. To alleviate this problem, server virtualization may be used to mask the details of server resources from users while optimizing resource sharing. Another approach to server consolidation is the use of blade servers to maximize the efficient use of space.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

A hypervisor, also called a virtual machine manager, is a program that allows multiple operating systems to share a single hardware host. Each operating system appears to have the host's processor, memory, and other resources all to itself. However, the hypervisor is actually controlling the host processor and resources, allocating what is needed to each operating system in turn and making sure that the guest operating systems (called virtual mahines) cannot disrupt each other.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

Virtualization is the pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console. Storage virtualization is commonly used in a storage area network (SAN). The management of storage devices can be tedious and time-consuming. Storage virtualization helps the storage administrator perform the tasks of backup, archiving, and recovery more easily, and in less time, by disguising the actual complexity of the SAN.

Users can implement virtualization with software applications or by using hardware and software hybrid appliances. The technology can be placed on different levels of a storage area network.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

Virtual PC is a program that emulates Windows 95, Windows 98, Windows NT, as well as IBM OS/2, or Linux on a Macintosh personal computer, assuming it's equipped with a sufficiently fast microprocessor. With Virtual PC installed, a Mac can show the desktop for the emulated operating system on one part of the display or it can take up the entire screen. You can run any program that will run under the other operating systems on "regular" (Intel microprocessor-based) PCs. Virtual PC works by converting Intel x86 instructions into PowerPC instructions on the fly.

To install and use Virtual PC, the Mac must have the PowerPC 604e microprocessor, or a 603e version that runs at a minimum of 180 MHz. An extra 150 to 300 megabytes of hard disk storage is needed and you should have at least 24 megabytes of random access memory (RAM) with 32 megabytes recommended. Versions of Virtual PC are available that will emulate Windows 3.1 and DOS; these can run with a slower microprocessor and less storage.

Virtual PC may be helpful for Mac users who need to run a Windows program occasionally or in families where some members want to run Mac applications and other members want to run Windows applications. According to a Wall Street Journal reviewer, the emulation appears to be complete, except that the Mac mouse, which has only one button, requires the user to press an additional key when a right-hand click is required.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

Grid computing (or the use of a computational grid) is applying the resources of many computers in a network to a single problem at the same time - usually to a scientific or technical problem that requires a great number of computer processing cycles or access to large amounts of data. A well-known example of grid computing in the public domain is the ongoing SETI (Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence) @Home project in which thousands of people are sharing the unused processor cycles of their PCs in the vast search for signs of "rational" signals from outer space. According to John Patrick, IBM's vice-president for Internet strategies, "the next big thing will be grid computing."

Grid computing requires the use of software that can divide and farm out pieces of a program to as many as several thousand computers. Grid computing can be thought of as distributed and large-scale cluster computing and as a form of network-distributed parallel processing. It can be confined to the network of computer workstations within a corporation or it can be a public collaboration (in which case it is also sometimes known as a form of peer-to-peer computing).

A number of corporations, professional groups, university consortiums, and other groups have developed or are developing frameworks and software for managing grid computing projects. The European Community (EU) is sponsoring a project for a grid for high-energy physics, earth observation, and biology applications. In the United States, the National Technology Grid is prototyping a computational grid for infrastructure and an access grid for people. Sun Microsystems offers Grid Engine software. Described as a distributed resource management (DRM) tool, Grid Engine allows engineers at companies like Sony and Synopsys to pool the computer cycles on up to 80 workstations at a time. (At this scale, grid computing can be seen as a more extreme case of load balancing.)

Grid computing appears to be a promising trend for three reasons: (1) its ability to make more cost-effective use of a given amount of computer resources, (2) as a way to solve problems that can't be approached without an enormous amount of computing power, and (3) because it suggests that the resources of many computers can be cooperatively and perhaps synergistically harnessed and managed as a collaboration toward a common objective. In some grid computing systems, the computers may collaborate rather than being directed by one managing computer. One likely area for the use of grid computing will be pervasive computing applications - those in which computers pervade our environment without our necessary awareness.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

PowerPC is a microprocessor architecture that was developed jointly by Apple, IBM, and Motorola. The PowerPC employs reduced instruction-set computing (RISC). The three developing companies have made the PowerPC architecture an open standard, inviting other companies to build on it.

Developed at IBM, reduced instruction-set computing (RISC) is based on studies showing that the simplest computer instructions are the ones most frequently performed. Traditionally, processors have been designed to accommodate the more complex instructions as well. RISC performs the more complex instructions using combinations of simple instructions. The timing for the processor can then be based on simpler and faster operations, enabling the microprocessor to perform more instructions for a given clock speed.

The PowerPC architecture provides an alternative to the popular processor architectures from Intel, including the Pentium. (Microsoft builds its Windows operating system offerings to run on Intel processors, and this widely-sold combination is sometimes called "Wintel".) The PowerPC was first used in IBM's RS/6000 workstation with its Unix-based operating system, AIX, and in Apple Computer's Macintosh personal computers. Today, PowerPC chips are also used in diverse applications including internetworking equipment, routers, telecom switches, interactive multimedia, automotive control, and industrial robotics.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

x86 is a generic name for the series of Intel microprocessor families that began with the 80286 microprocessor. This series has been the provider of computing for personal computers since the 80286 was introduced in 1982. x86 microprocessors include the 386DX/SX/SL family, the 486DX/SX//DX2/SL/DX4 family, and the Pentium 3 family. The x86 line replaced Intel's previous series, the 8086/8088. Adopted by IBM for its first PCs, the 8086/8088 and the continuing x86 series have made Intel the predominant force in microprocessor design and manufacture.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

In information technology, scalability (frequently spelled scaleability) seems to have two usages:

1) It is the ability of a computer application or product (hardware or software) to continue to function well when it (or its context) is changed in size or volume in order to meet a user need. Typically, the rescaling is to a larger size or volume. The rescaling can be of the product itself (for example, a line of computer systems of different sizes in terms of storage, RAM, and so forth) or in the scalable object's movement to a new context (for example, a new operating system).

An example: John Young in his book Exploring IBM's New-Age Mainframes describes the RS/6000 SP operating system as one that delivers scalability ("the ability to retain performance levels when adding additional processors"). Another example: In printing, scalable fonts are fonts that can be resized smaller or larger using software without losing quality.

2) It is the ability not only to function well in the rescaled situation, but to actually take full advantage of it. For example, an application program would be scalable if it could be moved from a smaller to a larger operating system and take full advantage of the larger operating system in terms of performance (user response time and so forth) and the larger number of users that could be handled.

It is usually easier to have scalability upward rather than downward since developers often must make full use of a system's resources (for example, the amount of disk storage available) when an application is initially coded. Scaling a product downward may mean trying to achieve the same results in a more constrained environment.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

SPARC (Scalable Processor Architecture) is a 32- and 64-bit microprocessor architecture from Sun Microsystems that is based on reduced instruction set computing (RISC). SPARC has become a widely-used architecture for hardware used with Unix-based operating systems, including Sun's own Solaris systems. Sun has made SPARC an open architecture that is available for licensing to microprocessor manufacturers. In its most recent brand name, UltraSPARC, microprocessors can be built for PC boards (using either Peripheral Component Interconnect or ATX) as well as for SPARC's original workstation market. As evidence of SPARC's scalability, Sun says that its UltraSPARC III will be designed to allow up to 1,000 processors to work together.

Although the idea of RISC is sometimes attributed to IBM's John Cocke, Sun Microsystems was the first to provide a microprocessor that exploited it for the workstation market and it's possible to say that, together with Unix, SPARC created the workstation market. (IBM has since used it in its successful RISC System/6000 line of workstations.) Since its inception in 1987, the SPARC architecture has included these ideas:

    * Reduce the number of instructions that the processor has to perform to a minimal number (one idea of RISC is that a complex instruction in a conventional computer can be reduced to a series of simpler operations, requiring a simpler architecture and a more compact microprocessor)
    * Reduce the number of types of memory addresses that the processor needs to handle
    * Put as little processor operation as possible in microcode, which requires clock speed-consuming time to access
    * Provide language compilers that compile programs that are optimized for a SPARC microprocessor by being arranged in an order that the processor can handle more efficiently

Sun's UltraSPARC III is expected to run at over 600 MHz, competing with Intel's Merced microprocessor. Sun says that it is aiming for a 1.5 gigahertz processor in 2002.

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

performance

Performance seems to have two meanings:

1) The speed at which a computer operates, either theoretically (for example, using a formula for calculating Mtops - millions of theoretical instructions per second) or by counting operations or instructions performed (for example, ( MIPS ) - millions of instructions per second) during a benchmark test. The benchmark test usually involves some combination of work that attempts to imitate the kinds of work the computer does during actual use. Sometimes performance is expressed for each of several different benchmarks.

2) The total effectiveness of a computer system, including throughput , individual response time , and availability.

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

WAN

A wide area network (WAN) is a geographically dispersed telecommunications network. The term distinguishes a broader telecommunication structure from a local area network (LAN). A wide area network may be privately owned or rented, but the term usually connotes the inclusion of public (shared user) networks. An intermediate form of network in terms of geography is a metropolitan area network (MAN).

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

router

In packet-switched networks such as the Internet, a router is a device or, in some cases, software in a computer, that determines the next network point to which a packet should be forwarded toward its destination. The router is connected to at least two networks and decides which way to send each information packet based on its current understanding of the state of the networks it is connected to. A router is located at any gateway (where one network meets another), including each point-of-presence on the Internet. A router is often included as part of a network switch.

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

IEEE

The IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) describes itself as "the world's largest technical professional society -- promoting the development and application of electrotechnology and allied sciences for the benefit of humanity, the advancement of the profession, and the well-being of our members."

The IEEE fosters the development of standards that often become national and international standards. The organization publishes a number of journals, has many local chapters, and several large societies in special areas, such as the IEEE Computer Society.

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

A packet is the unit of data that is routed between an origin and a destination on the Internet or any other packet-switched network. When any file (e-mail message, HTML file, Graphics Interchange Format file, Uniform Resource Locator request, and so forth) is sent from one place to another on the Internet, the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) layer of TCP/IP divides the file into "chunks" of an efficient size for routing. Each of these packets is separately numbered and includes the Internet address of the destination. The individual packets for a given file may travel different routes through the Internet. When they have all arrived, they are reassembled into the original file (by the TCP layer at the receiving end).

A packet-switching scheme is an efficient way to handle transmissions on a connectionless network such as the Internet. An alternative scheme, circuit-switched, is used for networks allocated for voice connections. In circuit-switching, lines in the network are shared among many users as with packet-switching, but each connection requires the dedication of a particular path for the duration of the connection.

"Packet" and "datagram" are similar in meaning. A protocol similar to TCP, the User Datagram Protocol(UDP) uses the term datagram.

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

Mbps

Mbps is not to be confused with MBps (megabytes per second). Also see Kilo, mega, giga, tera, peta, and all that.

Mbps stands for millions of bits per second or megabits per second and is a measure of bandwidth (the total information flow over a given time) on a telecommunications medium. Depending on the medium and the transmission method, bandwidth is also sometimes measured in the Kbps (thousands of bits or kilobits per second) range or the Gbps (billions of bits or gigabits per second) range.

A megabit is a million binary pulses, or 1,000,000 (that is, 106) pulses (or "bits"). For example, a U.S. phone company T-carrier system line is said to sustain a data rate of 1.544 megabits per second. Megabits per second is usually shortened to Mbps.

Some sources define a megabit to mean 1,048,576 (that is, 220) bits. Although the bit is a unit of the binary number system, bits in data communications are discrete signal pulses and have historically been counted using the decimal number system. For example, 28.8 kilobits per second (Kbps) is 28,800 bits per second. Because of computer architecture and memory address boundaries, bytes are always some multiple or exponent of two. See kilobyte, etc.

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

switch

In a telecommunications network, a switch is a device that channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to the specific output port that will take the data toward its intended destination. In the traditional circuit-switched telephone network, one or more switches are used to set up a dedicated though temporary connection or circuit for an exchange between two or more parties. On an Ethernet local area network (LAN), a switch determines from the physical device (Media Access Control or MAC) address in each incoming message frame which output port to forward it to and out of. In a wide area packet-switched network such as the Internet, a switch determines from the IP address in each packet which output port to use for the next part of its trip to the intended destination.

In the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) communications model, a switch performs the layer 2 or Data-Link layer function. That is, it simply looks at each packet or data unit and determines from a physical address (the "MAC address") which device a data unit is intended for and switches it out toward that device. However, in wide area networks such as the Internet, the destination address requires a look-up in a routing table by a device known as a router. Some newer switches also perform routing functions (layer 3 or the Network layer functions in OSI) and are sometimes called IP switches.

On larger networks, the trip from one switch point to another in the network is called a hop. The time a switch takes to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its latency. The price paid for having the flexibility that switches provide in a network is this latency. Switches are found at the backbone and gateway levels of a network where one network connects with another and at the subnetwork level where data is being forwarded close to its destination or origin. The former are often known as core switches and the latter as desktop switches.

In the simplest networks, a switch is not required for messages that are sent and received within the network. For example, a local area network may be organized in a Token Ring or bus arrangement in which each possible destination inspects each message and reads any message with its address.

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

MAC address

In a local area network (LAN) or other network, the MAC (Media Access Control) address is your computer's unique hardware number. (On an Ethernet LAN, it's the same as your Ethernet address.) When you're connected to the Internet from your computer (or host as the Internet protocol thinks of it), a correspondence table relates your IP address to your computer's physical (MAC) address on the LAN.

The MAC address is used by the Media Access Control sublayer of the Data-Link Layer (DLC) of telecommunication protocols. There is a different MAC sublayer for each physical device type. The other sublayer level in the DLC layer is the Logical Link Control sublayer.

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

millisecond

(This definition follows U.S. usage in which a billion is a thousand million and a trillion is a 1 followed by 12 zeros.)

A millisecond (ms or msec) is one thousandth of a second and is commonly used in measuring the time to read to or write from a hard disk or a CD-ROM player or to measure packet travel time on the Internet.

For comparison, a microsecond (us or Greek letter mu plus s) is one millionth (10-6) of a second.

A nanosecond (ns or nsec) is one billionth (10-9) of a second and is a common measurement of read or write access time to random access memory (RAM).

A picosecond is one trillionth (10-12) of a second, or one millionth of a microsecond.

A femtosecond is one millionth of a nanosecond or 10-15 of a second and is a measurement sometimes used in laser technology.

An attosecond is one quintillionth (10-18) of a second and is a term used in photon research.

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

A virtual private network (VPN) is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization's network. A virtual private network can be contrasted with an expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one organization. The goal of a VPN is to provide the organization with the same capabilities, but at a much lower cost

Virtual LAN quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

A packet is the unit of data that is routed between an origin and a destination on the Internet or any other packet-switched network. When any file (e-mail message, HTML file, Graphics Interchange Format file, Uniform Resource Locator request, and so forth) is sent from one place to another on the Internet, the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) layer of TCP/IP divides the file into "chunks" of an efficient size for routing. Each of these packets is separately numbered and includes the Internet address of the destination. The individual packets for a given file may travel different routes through the Internet. When they have all arrived, they are reassembled into the original file (by the TCP layer at the receiving end).

A packet-switching scheme is an efficient way to handle transmissions on a connectionless network such as the Internet. An alternative scheme, circuit-switched, is used for networks allocated for voice connections. In circuit-switching, lines in the network are shared among many users as with packet-switching, but each connection requires the dedication of a particular path for the duration of the connection.

"Packet" and "datagram" are similar in meaning. A protocol similar to TCP, the User Datagram Protocol(UDP) uses the term datagram.

oh sorry,

i want this word's meaning "thiyaagi" in english

thank u  acumen , for helping me.[that's the word id already inside]

mavattam-district

beach/tourist place-GOA

expect the unexpected

tourist place-GOA

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

Because both Windows and Linux support it, VMware is the best virtualization solution for heterogeneous environments, say the authors of Advanced Server Virtualization: VMware and Microsoft Platforms in the Virtual Data Center. In this interview, David Marshall and Wade Reynolds offer their advice on what to do in heterogeneous environments, explain why they believe VMware trumps Microsoft Virtual Server and give their suggestions for useful management tools. For customers in a heterogeneous ...

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

Developers are intimately familiar with source control, so for them, software like Subversion is old news. For the rest of you who may have never heard of it before, Subversion is a source control system -- a piece of software that allows you and/or a group of people to manage data over time, recover previous versions of the data and examine the evolution of that data.

Some of you will see the immediate benefit to having such software to help manage scripts that you use in the COS. Then again, a large percentage of people reading this will wonder, "Why should I care about Subversion when the COS comes installed with CVS?" The answer to this question is the same as the answer to why people use Subversion as opposed to CVS in any situation: Subversion has more features than CVS and is better suited (for some) to today's development practices. For a detailed comparison, please see http://wiki.gnuarch.org/SubVersionAndCvsComparison. This is not a discussion that I am going to have here. If you are a fan of CVS, then use CVS, but if you want to know how to use Subversion with ESX, then follow me!

Installing Subversion for ESX takes just 6 steps:

1) In your favorite browser go to the.earth.li/pub/subversion/summersoft.fay.ar.us/pub/subversion/latest/redhat-7.x/bin/ and download the following RPMs:
apache-libapr-2.0.48-0.1.i386.rpm
neon-0.24.7-1.i386.rpm
db4-4.0.14-0.4.i386.rpm
libxml2-2.5.4-1.i386.rpm
subversion-1.3.1-1.rh7x.i386.rpm

2) Jump to the URL rpm.pbone.net/index.php3/stat/4/idpl/1070466/com/expat-libs-1.95.7-7tr.i586.rpm.html and download the following RPM:
expat-libs-1.95.7-7tr.i586.rpm

3) Upload these RPMs to your ESX server using whatever means you wish.

4) SSH into ESX.

5) Change directories to the location where you uploaded the RPMs.

6) Type the following command:
sudo rpm -ivh --nodep *.rpm

That's it! You have now installed the core files necessary to operate the subversion client tools. Notice the "nodep" option in step 6. This is required because parts of Subversion actually require many more dependencies and we need to tell the RPM installer to skip, but for the tools that we want to use, "svn" and "svnadmin", the 6 packages will provide the necessary files for these tools to operate without error.

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

As an independent IT consultant and subcontractor, Paul Winkeler is in the field regularly, helping IT managers find new ways to make their data center run more efficiently. As the owner of Ohio-based PBnJ Solutions, Winkeler recently began using virtualization as part of a disaster recovery (DR) plan for one of his clients and spoke with SearchServerVirtualization about the solution.
   
Virtualization technology is very popular for server consolidation, but what else can it be used for?

The concept of using virtualization in a disaster recovery environment is very high on the list. In the past, it has been expensive to get one server to replicate to the other because those two servers had to be basically identical for complete replication. In order for them to be identical, you needed the same hardware in both the main and backup locations. With virtualization, those hardware costs are cut down significantly because of the ability to host several machines on one server.

Can you give us an example of how virtualization can be used for DR?

One of my customers is a large investment company that uses SQL Server 2000 to track client activity. They need this information to be available at all times. We are doing something different for this client using virtualization to replicate that data. We have Microsoft Virtual Servers; one at the main site and one at a backup site. The virtual servers have virtual disk drives and we are using a product called LifeKeeper from Steeleye Technologies, Inc. to replicate the virtual drives back and forth. Anytime there is a change, the product reports the information to both servers, so the data is always up-to-date.

What are the advantages of using virtualization in this scenario as opposed to going with a more traditional DR solution?

For starters, one advantage to using virtual servers instead of physical servers is in the testing. When we were building the test environment, we basically had two virtual servers running on the same hardware. So we built the whole test environment at the client's home office without having to worry about having high speed connection between the home office and the backup site. I could just do all the testing locally.

Now that the servers are up and running, another advantage to having the data virtualized is that I can now test more frequently than I can with physical servers. With physical servers, testing is often painful and something that we try to avoid. Using virtual servers, it is easy for us to test because we can shut down and turn on these virtual servers easily. We can simulate server failure just by shutting them down. We don't need remote hardware access to power down

Any other additional cost savings you have seen using virtualization for DR?

I already mentioned hardware, but there are additional savings in that area. At the customer's main site, we have a ratio of 2 or 3 virtual servers per physical machine. But at the mirror site, we boost that ratio higher because most of the time those servers are really not doing anything mission critical; they are just sitting there on standby. This conserves the amount of money we have to tie up in a backup site. Previously, before we starting using virtual servers, there was a lot of capital tied up in the backup site that wasn't really necessary.

There is also a savings when it comes to personnel because virtual environments can be managed remotely, so we need much less personnel working on the management of the machines and they can now be used for other tasks.

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

After years of finding limited opportunities for job advancement in the IT sector, a recent industry poll shows that there is now some movement afoot when it comes to job prospects.

The Computing Technology Industry Association, or CompTIA, based in Oakbrook Terrace, Ill., released a poll of 1,000 high tech workers, including those who work in IT. CompTIA is an IT industry trade association.

A few years ago the high tech job sector was shedding jobs in such numbers that many people had to go into other fields to find work, and in the case of many older workers, they remain unemployed or under employed in unrelated fields.

The number of high tech jobs began to nose dive in 2000, along with the numbers in other industries when the United States experienced an official recession followed by an economy that remained sluggish.
            
Fifty-eight percent of the 1,000 people polled said they were looking for a new job.         

"The evidence we received anecdotally from high tech people, which includes IT workers, is that they now believe the market for tech jobs is loosening up," said Steven Ostrowski, an association representative.

Fifty-eight percent of the 1,000 people polled said they were looking for a new job. Higher pay overwhelmingly topped the list with 73% of those job hunters hoping to land a higher-paying job.

Sixty-four percent said they were looking because their current job held no chance for advancement, while 58% said they wanted a new challenge. And 41% said they would like better benefits.

A total of 61% said they were looking either because they didn't respect the management or the company where they were working, or their management did not respect them.

Almost 22% would like to find a less stressful job, and almost 35% want a job that helps pay for some or all of their professional education.

CompTIA prepared the survey after the association ran a one-question poll asking if high tech workers were looking to change jobs, Ostrowski said. "The feedback we got was so high we figured we should look into it a bit more closely," he said, adding that the association will likely follow up on the poll in a year.

And while CompTIA did not ask those it surveyed for job titles, it did ask them to name the industries where they worked. A quarter of the 1,000 workers polled work in IT companies, which includes computer companies as well as value-added resellers. Sixteen percent work in education, 15% in government, 8% in healthcare and 7% in manufacturing.

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

Data center administrators are too conservative to let virtual machine (VM) deployments snowball into a much-ballyhooed sprawl, said VMware Inc. director of data center products Patrick Lin. The real sprawl will take place off the production line in test environments.

Of course, VM deployments in data centers will increase, but automated management tools -- such as those contained in the new VMware Virtual Infrastructure 3 (VI3) -- will keep provisioning and management in hand, Lin said in this interview with SearchServerVirtualization.com.

Lin also described beta testers' reactions to the automated management tools in VI3. The new platform contains existing products ESX Server, Virtual SMP and VirtualCenter. (The latter includes VMotion, which lets you move VMs around a set of physical servers automatically without downtime.) New additions are a distributed file system for managing VMs, VMFS; VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler; VMware High Availability (HA); and VMware Consolidated Backup.

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

Virtualization technology has saved an Illinois-based truck manufacturer more than $1 million in hardware costs.

Barry Naber, IT manager for International Truck and Engine Corp. in Warrenville, Ill., has reduced physical server purchases with virtualization. The company has saved $7,500 for each virtual machine running.
            
International Truck now has 18 ESX servers running a total of 217 virtual machines . . . That adds up to $1,627,500 in server costs that were avoided.

Initially, the company looked into virtualization to alleviate a growth problem. Naber wanted to put a lid on the number of servers in his environment. "We had too many servers," he said. "Space wasn't really the big issue; there were just an overwhelming number of physical servers to manage."

Naber said he was sure that as business grew, the number of applications needed in his data center would, too, and he wanted a plan for the future that would reduce server sprawl and keep hardware costs down. He looked at blade servers but decided that blades, while smaller in size than traditional rack-mounted servers, did not cut down on the actual physical number of boxes in the server room.

"Our goal was to reduce the number of servers we had, and blades don't do that, so they couldn't help us with our goal," Naber said.

Naber started with just one copy of VMware Inc's ESX server software in 2002, in test mode only. After virtualizing several applications for a few months, Naber was impressed enough with the performance to start using ESX server in production scenarios as well.
   
International Truck now has 18 ESX servers running a total of 217 virtual machines on a combination of four- and eight-processor IBM X Series and HP ProLiant servers. That adds up to $1,627,500 in server costs that were avoided.

The physical servers host 200 different applications and several Windows operating systems, according to Naber. The only type of application Naber said he is not comfortable virtualizing is a database. He does not think large databases are a good fit for virtualization because of the overhead generated by their massive memory requirements.

Naber also uses virtualization to ensure applications are compatible. Applications are first deployed in development mode and then migrated into production only after extensive testing. "We now have both production and development partitions," he said. "This lets us test out upgrades and patches in a development environment before moving it into production."

Naber noted that cost savings in the server room were not immediate.

"Because the older Windows servers we were running are inexpensive to support, there wasn't a big cost savings when we were able to get rid of one," he said.

But cost avoidance is an obvious benefit that has been revealed over time, he said.

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

A soon-to-be-released VMware Inc. product may please Mac users, but the virtualization offering will not do much to alleviate the pain IT administrators feel from having to manage multiple desktop platforms. Palo Alto-based VMware has said that a product that gives Mac users the ability to virtualize PC operating systems such as Windows and Linux on Mac OS X will be available later in the year.

The VMware product is not the first that aims to let users run Windows on Macs. Apple Corp. already has software in beta called Boot Camp, which allows Intel-based Macs to run either Windows or the Mac OS. However, Boot Camp does not let you run both systems at the same time. Another product, from a small start-up company called Parallels Inc., based in Herdon, Va., will compete more directly with VMware. The Parallels product uses virtualization technology to allow Windows to operate alongside Mac OS at the same time.

These software offerings come as welcome news for Mac users who would like to run Windows applications on an Apple computer, but they have little business value according to Mark Margevicius, a vice president and research director with Gartner Inc. in Stamford, Conn.

"There are some subsets of Mac users that have tools on both platforms, where they actually have a Mac on one side of the desk and a PC on other," he said. "In those types of instances this will assist in a big way. But, honestly, I've got to believe that is less than 1% of workers."

Nor will the VMware product expand Apple's presence in the enterprise, because Mac OS itself will continue to run only on Apple hardware. Apple confirmed it has no plans to sell, support or allow a virtualized version of Mac OS on non-Apple hardware.

That's consistent with Apple's strong proprietary history, Margevicius said. "They have always articulated that Mac is not a PC; it is an Apple platform, which they will own and control."

On the heels of the VMware announcement comes word from Microsoft that the software giant's Virtual PC for Mac, a product that allows Windows to run on Intel-based Macs, will be shelved. In a statement, Microsoft said it "has made the decision not to move forward with a universal version of Virtual PC at this time."

"Developing a high-quality virtualization solution, such as Virtual PC, for the Intel-based Mac is similar to creating a version 1.0 release due to how closely the product integrates with Mac hardware," the statement read.

Underground movement afoot

Virtualizing Mac OS X has been done on the sly among techies already, according to David Marshall, a virtualization analyst and a senior architect at Surgient Inc., which provides virtual lab applications. "Many have claimed to virtualize Mac OS X already on different platforms, but it certainly isn't supported. And I would bet that Apple would do more than just frown on it," he said.

So, for most IT managers, the stress of supporting both PCs and Macs just isn't worth it. John Hornbuckle, a network manager with the Taylor County School district in Perry, Fla., can attest that standardizing platforms and hardware can reduce IT management stress.

"When I was first hired here to oversee the district's technology, we had both Macs and PCs. One of my earliest goals was to change that," Hornbuckle said. "We've phased out virtually all Macs here, thankfully. Supporting multiple platforms was determined to not be cost-effective or necessary, and we became a PC shop a few years back."

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

Blade servers are gaining respect among IT professionals and finding a place alongside virtualization in the quest to reduce the data center footprint.

New research from TheInfoPro (TIP) Inc., a New York IT consultancy, found that more organizations are looking seriously at blades for their server room and, in many instances, are deploying virtualization projects on blade servers.

The ongoing server study from TIP examines user experiences and their plans for the future in several areas, including use of virtualization, blade servers, server networking and server and systems management. The study asked questions about motivating factors for adoption and time frames for the deployment of various technologies.

The latest wave of research found that more than 85% of the 130 IT managers surveyed consider blade servers "valuable" or "critical" to their long-term data center plans. This differs dramatically from a previous survey conducted late last year. At that time, 25% of users said they saw little or no cost benefits in blades and did not see the slim servers as a priority purchase. In the most recent poll of users, negative responses about blades dropped to zero.

Bob Gill, chief research officer for TIP, said previous surveys uncovered disappointment in blades among users who were expecting more from the servers. The marketing hype did not match up with the product.

"Now, there is a shift toward pragmatism," Gill said. "People are beginning to embrace blades for what they are -- as simply an alterative form factor to x86 servers. They are not expecting an entirely new technology."

The research also revealed that consolidation is the top server priority among organizations. IT managers surveyed were using virtualization software and blade servers for server consolidation projects and many cited plans to virtualize on blades, said Gill. "Virtualization is still the hottest thing that has come along in a few years," he said. "But blades aren't taking a back seat anymore. There is an increased perception that not everything should be virtualized and there are some things that are more appropriate on blades."

Gill said users' plans are evenly split between scaling applications up through virtualization and scaling out via traditional standalone x86 servers or x86 blade servers.

Louis Foler, a consultant for systems retailer CDW Corp., in Vernon Hills, Ill., said most of his clients virtualize projects on new hardware.

"I like to sell virtualization software with blade servers because the blades are like a self-contained system on their own," Foler said. "Because of this design, these blade centers are like self-contained systems and work great with virtualization technology."

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

Virtualization addresses the same problems, such as server glut and management complexity, as clustering does -- and it doesn't necessarily do a better job of solving them, according to cluster expert Don Becker.

That doesn't mean that clusters and virtualization are mutually exclusive and can't benefit from technology sharing, says Becker, co-founder of the Beowulf project -- a pioneering open source/Linux cluster development effort. He is also the CTO at Scyld Inc., the software division of Penguin Computing, a server vendor in San Francisco.

In this interview with SearchServerVirtualization.com, Becker describes the shortcomings of virtualization, its kinship with clustering and the marriage of the two in Scyld ClusterWare HPC 4.0 cluster virtualization software.

Newsmaker quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

Having entered the virtualization space late in the game, Microsoft is working hard to recover lost time.

So far, the Redmond giant's strategy has had three key moves. First, the company announced the Windows Server Virtualization hypervisor and System Center Virtual Machine Manager tool, two competitive products it hopes will challenge VMware Inc. for market leadership. Then, it acquired Softricity Inc., a recognized leader in application virtualization with its SoftGrid product. Finally, it entered into an agreement with XenSource Inc. for virtual machine interoperability between its hypervisor and the most famous open source virtualization platform, Xen.

This last step raised a lot of hackles in the virtualization industry, with reactions from many vendors, including VMware. Customers found themselves faced with uncertainty regarding conflicting information, the complexity of the migrations and the impact on business. Summarizing the key points of any problem always helps to clarify the issues, so here are the key elements in the Microsoft-Xen situation:

   1. Microsoft has been involved in the Xen project since the very beginning. SWsoft Inc. reports Microsoft's upcoming Windows Server Virtualization and Xen hypervisors have a similar architecture.

   2. Xen is open source.

   3. Microsoft Windows Server Virtualization will be out within two years.

   4. VMware has been proposing a virtualization standard for more than a year, but the work has severely slowed down because of differences of opinion, particularly with regard to the XenSource approach.

   5. VMware rarely comments on competitors' moves in the virtualization market, but in less than a day it reacted aggressively against the Microsoft-XenSource agreement.

   6. Xen is adopting a paravirtualization approach, involving guest operating system kernel modification, permitted only on open source platforms.

   7. With the new features inside AMD (SVM) and Intel (VT) processors, users can achieve the same capability to run operating systems with paravirtualization. In the future, new generations of this technology will be able to achieve the same performances.

   8. Virtual Iron Software Inc. publicly announced that its products would be based on Xen, but that the company will dismiss the paravirtualization approach.

   9. Novell released its new operating system with Xen but limited support to its own operating system for virtual machines.

  10. After the Microsoft-XenSource announcement and Novell operating system release, Red Hat Inc. suddenly warned that Xen is not ready for production, despite the big announcement of a comprehensive virtualization strategy on March.

Given these points, customers looking at Xen and Windows Server Virtualization as a viable alternative to the existing VMware ESX Server solution have now to ask themselves:

   1. Why key Xen supporters are offering limited support for it even after implementing the hypervisor on their commercial solutions.

   2. Why Microsoft didn't opt to participate in VMware and Xen hypervisor standardization works instead of working on an interoperability solution.

   3. Why Microsoft needed XenSource to implement Xen interoperability when it knows the project so well.

   4. Given licensing and support issues, why moving a native virtual machine from its hypervisor to another should be better than committing a physical-to-virtual (P2V) migration.

Answering those questions leads to some notable conclusions. First of all, the recently announced Microsoft-XenSource deal has value purely as a political pact. Considering that it's impossible for XenSource to benefit from Microsoft's know-how because of licensing incompatibilities, the agreement is unilateral, providing technical benefits to Microsoft only -- if there are any. The main goal will be to verify if a XenEnterprise Linux virtual machine is as fast as, or faster than, the same machine built from scratch on Windows Server Virtualization. This will be impossible until both companies release their products, assuming hypervisors will feature the interoperability patch at that time.

Another important conclusion is that Xen is a project with high potential but an uncertain destiny. In the immediate future, customers who decide to adopt it even through the Novell or Red Hat operating systems, will live in a half-supported world where they cannot use the hypervisor for anything other than virtualizing the same platform. In this scenario, OS partitioning products like SWsoft Virtuozzo are a better fit.

In the long run, assuming the next-generation processors will be able to provide the same performance paravirtualization offers today, Xen will lose its technical advantage and be obliged to compete au pair with other products. At that point, customers will need a compelling reason to adopt the open source hypervisor, without the experience of VMware or the support capabilities of Microsoft.

QUIZ:Storage Smarts ANSWER KEY

ANSWER KEY: 1d;2c;3c;4a;5b;6b;7a;8d;9c;10b

 Storage management  quiz:ANSWERS

1)d. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM)
2)c. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI)
3)a. virtual tape
4)a. failover
5)d. consolidation plan
6)search the answer
7)a. packet writing
8 d. JBOD
9)b. compression
10)c. DLT (digital linear tape)

Storage Management Survival School, quiz ANSWERS

1)c. Information Lifecycle Management. According to Jamie Gruener, assessing the management problem, establishing data quality priorities and developing metrics for measuring ROI are all key parts of the planning roadmap. Information Lifecycle Management deals with the flow of information within a data system, from creation to storage to deletion.

2)a. Business analysis. Gruener suggests examining a few key questions when determining what storage management tools are appropriate for your business. What tools are you using already? What applications are drawing most heavily on your storage resources? What could be automated? And while he doesn't advise you to make your vendor selection based on giveaways, he does suggest you consider which vendor's products are most commonly deployed to address your particular storage need.

3)c. What you need to get you from what you have to what you need. Using criteria such as the forecasted growth of storage, the current draw on the system by particular applications and business considerations such as upcoming mergers and acquisitions, you can determine what the "gap" is between your current storage and your future requirements.

4)d. A combination of all of the above. In order to calculate the net benefits of your system, Gruener recommends that you take TCO, break even analysis and traditional ROI metrics into account.

5)b. Choosing the right product for your specific environment. Storage vendors have aggressively over-marketed their products, and it's getting harder and harder to classify each individual product. Selecting the right product, therefore, should be the culmination of a process of researching vendor offerings, understanding corporate goals and getting a solid feel for the market at large.
6)d. Consolidation

7)A. Excel

8)E. A and B

9)D. All of the above

10)B. A zone that follows the device that is part of the zone

Quiz:Storage networking ANSWERS

1)c. network-attached storage
2)b. provisioning
3)e. Improved word processing
4)a. Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
5)c. concurrent access
6)d. zoning
7)a. WAN
8 d. solid-state
9)c. Gigabit Ethernet
10)b. dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)

Storage area networks ANSWERS

1)b. Incorporate all servers into the SAN
2)c. FCIP
3)a. Yes
4)d. ANSI
5)c. Read the labels
6)d. Fibre Channel
7)b. Decreased workload
8 a. Switch-on-a-chip
9)b. Enterprise storage
10)b. Storability

Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

Synchronous Graphics RAM

Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) is clock-synchronized random access memory that is used for video memory. It is relatively low-cost video memory. It uses masked write , which enables selected data to be modified in a single operation rather as a sequence of read, update, and write operations. It also uses block write , which allows data for background or foreground image fills to be handled more efficiently. SGRAM is single-ported. Its special features are what make it a moderately fast form of video memory. The Matrox Mystique is an example of a video card that uses SGRAM.

Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

Synclink Dynamic RAM

SyncLink SDRAM, along with Direct Rambus DRAM, is a protocol -based approach where all signals to random access memory ( RAM ) are on the same line (rather than having separate column address strobe , row address strobe , address, and data lines). Since access time does not depend on synchronizing operations on multiple lines, SLDRAM promises RAM speed of up to 800 MHz. Like Double Data Rate SDRAM, SLDRAM can operate at twice the system clock rate. SyncLink is an open industry standard that is expected to compete with Direct Rambus DRAM.

Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

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Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

Window RAM

Window RAM (WRAM), unrelated to Microsoft Windows, is very high-performance video RAM that is dual-ported and has about 25% more bandwidth than VRAM but costs less. It has features that make it more efficient to read data for use in block fills and text drawing. It can be used for very high resolution (such as 1600 by 1200 pixels) projection using true color . WRAM is used in the Matrox Millenium video card.

Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

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Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

CD-ROM (Compact Disc, read-only-memory) is an adaptation of the CD that is designed to store computer data in the form of text and graphics, as well as hi-fi stereo sound. The original data format standard was defined by Philips and Sony in the 1983 Yellow Book. Other standards are used in conjunction with it to define directory and file structures, including ISO 9660, HFS (Hierarchal File System, for Macintosh computers), and Hybrid HFS-ISO. Format of the CD-ROM is the same as for audio CDs: a standard CD is 120 mm (4.75 inches) in diameter and 1.2 mm (0.05 inches) thick and is composed of a polycarbonate plastic substrate (underlayer - this is the main body of the disc), one or more thin reflective metal (usually aluminum) layers, and a lacquer coating.

The Yellow Book specifications were so general that there was some fear in the industry that multiple incompatible and proprietary formats would be created. In order to prevent such an occurrence, representatives from industry leaders met at the High Sierra Hotel in Lake Tahoe to collaborate on a common standard. Nicknamed the High Sierra Format, this version was later modified to become ISO 9660. Today, CD-ROMs are standardized and will work in any standard CD-ROM drive. CD-ROM drives can also read audio compact discs for music, although CD players cannot read CD-ROM discs.

Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

parameter RAM

PRAM (parameter RAM or parameter random access memory) is a special battery-powered form of random access memory in certain Macintosh computers where vital system information such as the date and time are stored. PRAM also contains computer configuration information, such as what's connected to each port on the computer. Because PRAM is powered by an internal battery, the information isn't lost when you turn the computer off as it is with regular RAM.

PRAM occasionally gets corrupted as the result of an application failure and needs to be zap ped or restored. The procedure of "zapping the PRAM" is easily located by searching for it on major search engines. However, be aware that it may not apply to more recent Apple computers or operating systems. We suggest contacting Apple to find out the right procedure for your particular system.

Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

EEPROM (electrically erasable programmable read-only memory) is user-modifiable read-only memory (ROM) that can be erased and reprogrammed (written to) repeatedly through the application of higher than normal electrical voltage. Unlike EPROM chips, EEPROMs do not need to be removed from the computer to be modified. However, an EEPROM chip has to be erased and reprogrammed in its entirety, not selectively. It also has a limited life - that is, the number of times it can be reprogrammed is limited to tens or hundreds of thousands of times. In an EEPROM that is frequently reprogrammed while the computer is in use, the life of the EEPROM can be an important design consideration.

A special form of EEPROM is flash memory, which uses normal PC voltages for erasure and reprogramming.

Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

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Storage: Do you speak geek?ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

RAM (random access memory) is the place in a computer where the operating system, application programs, and data in current use are kept so that they can be quickly reached by the computer's processor. RAM is much faster to read from and write to than the other kinds of storage in a computer, the hard disk, floppy disk, and CD-ROM. However, the data in RAM stays there only as long as your computer is running. When you turn the computer off, RAM loses its data. When you turn your computer on again, your operating system and other files are once again loaded into RAM, usually from your hard disk.

RAM can be compared to a person's short-term memory and the hard disk to the long-term memory. The short-term memory focuses on work at hand, but can only keep so many facts in view at one time. If short-term memory fills up, your brain sometimes is able to refresh it from facts stored in long-term memory. A computer also works this way. If RAM fills up, the processor needs to continually go to the hard disk to overlay old data in RAM with new, slowing down the computer's operation. Unlike the hard disk which can become completely full of data so that it won't accept any more, RAM never runs out of memory. It keeps operating, but much more slowly than you may want it to.

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

If your answer was RAID-10, you are correct!

This level of RAID combines RAID levels 0 and 1 and confers benefits in recovery and reliability, albeit at the cost of halving the storage capacity of the RAID array.

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

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RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

A mirror is a Web site or set of files on a computer server that has been copied to another computer server so that the site or files are available from more than one place. For files that are popular for downloading, a mirror helps reduce network traffic, ensures better availability of the Web site or files, or enables the site or downloaded files to arrive more quickly for users close to the mirror site. Mirroring is the practice of creating and maintaining mirror sites.

A mirror site is an exact replica of the original site and is usually updated frequently to ensure that it reflects the content of the original site. Mirror sites are used to make access faster when the original site may be geographically distant (for example, a much-used Web site in Germany may arrange to have a mirror site in the United States). In some cases, the original site (for example, on a small university server) may not have a high-speed connection to the Internet and may arrange for a mirror site at a larger site with higher-speed connection and perhaps closer proximity to a large audience.

In addition to mirroring Web sites, you can also mirror files that can be downloaded from an File Transfer Protocol server. Netscape, Microsoft, Sun Microsystems, and other companies have mirror sites from which you can download their browser software.

Mirroring could be considered a static form of content delivery.

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

If your answer was RAID-50, you are correct!

RAID-50: This RAID level is RAID-5 with suspenders. Like the other double-digit RAID levels, RAID-50 is a combination of two basic RAID techniques. It combines striping (RAID-0) with independent data disks with distributed parity (RAID-5). It stripes data across at least two RAID-5 arrays.

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

RAID-5: Striped parity

If your answer was RAID-5, you are correct!

RAID-5: Striped parity. The parity at this level is divided up, with a share being given to each disk in the array. This sharing will balance and reduce the performance impact that is evident in RAID-4 implementations. In software implementations of this array, which are fairly common, performance will often become unacceptably slow if writes make up any more than about 15% of disk activity.

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

IT professionals are constantly trying to prevent the data loss that results from disk failure. Data protection is typically provided through a RAID technology.

RAID gathers individual hard disks into cohesive disk sets (dubbed RAID groups or RAID arrays) that can be operated in unison through a dedicated RAID controller. Most general-purpose servers employ four to eight disks in a RAID group, although storage arrays, such as an EMC Clariion, can gather huge numbers of disks.

Grouping offers three benefits. Drive capacity can be aggregated to create larger storage volume. For example, two 100 GB drives can be aggregated to offer users a single 200 GB volume, although this benefit alone offers no redundancy. Redundancy is accomplished through mirroring where the contents of one disk are directly duplicated (or "mirrored") onto another drive. Should one disk fail, the mirrored disk can step in to supply any needed data.

Unfortunately, mirroring cuts capacity in half, so if you have two 100 GB disks, only one of the disks is usable at a time. Performance benefits are realized through disk striping, where the contents of a file are interleaved across several disks in the RAID group. One disk can be positioning or reading data into cache while another disk is passing data from cache across the drive interface, thereby increasing effective storage performance. In actual practice, RAID usually implements several of these tactics simultaneously.

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

RAID-1: Mirroring

If your answer was RAID-1, you are correct!

RAID-1: Mirroring. All of the data on one disk is copied exactly onto a second disk. Neither disk is the master or primary -- the disks are peers. For writes to be deemed complete, they must make it to both disks. If one disk fails, its partner keeps right on running, without interruption. The good news with this level is that it's very easy to manage and it does not require significant levels of CPU for normal operations or for recovery. The downside to this level is the expense -- for every gigabyte of disk you wish to protect, you need a second, matching gigabyte. In other words, this requires twice as much disk space as unprotected disks.

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

SEARCH THE ANSWER FOR 3 THIS IS YOUR EXERCISE

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

SEARCH THE ANSWER FOR 2 THIS IS YOUR EXERCISE

RAID technology quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

RAID-0: Striping

If your answer was RAID-0, you are correct.

RAID-0: Striping. This is the level of RAID that does not live up to its name. Its does not add redundancy. In fact, when run by itself, it reduces the level of protection for the data. When data is striped, it is spread across several disks with each block of data only being written in one place. The advantage here is not in protection but in performance. If any of the disks in the stripe fail, then access to all the disks is lost. However, by spreading the data across more pieces of hardware, writes and reads can be completed more quickly, since the task can be performed by more independent readers and writers.

METROPOLITAN CITY-KOLKATA

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

Optical fiber (or "fiber optic") refers to the medium and the technology associated with the transmission of information as light pulses along a glass or plastic wire or fiber. Optical fiber carries much more information than conventional copper wire and is in general not subject to electromagnetic interference and the need to retransmit signals. Most telephone company long-distance lines are now of optical fiber.

Transmission on optical fiber wire requires repeaters at distance intervals. The glass fiber requires more protection within an outer cable than copper. For these reasons and because the installation of any new wiring is labor-intensive, few communities yet have optical fiber wires or cables from the phone company's branch office to local customers (known as local loops).

A type of fiber known as single mode fiber is used for longer distances; multimode fiber fiber is used for shorter distances.

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

Coaxial cable is the kind of copper cable used by cable TV companies between the community antenna and user homes and businesses. Coaxial cable is sometimes used by telephone companies from their central office to the telephone poles near users. It is also widely installed for use in business and corporation Ethernet and other types of local area network.

   
Coaxial cable is called "coaxial" because it includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation) by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis. The outer channel serves as a ground. Many of these cables or pairs of coaxial tubes can be placed in a single outer sheathing and, with repeaters, can carry information for a great distance.

Coaxial cable was invented in 1929 and first used commercially in 1941. AT&T established its first cross-continental coaxial transmission system in 1940. Depending on the carrier technology used and other factors, twisted pair copper wire and optical fiber are alternatives to coaxial cable.

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

A host bus adapter (HBA) is a circuit board and/or integrated circuit adapter that provides input/output (I/O) processing and physical connectivity between a server and a storage device. Because the HBA relieves the host microprocessor of both data storage and retrieval tasks, it can improve the server's performance time. An HBA and its associated disk subsystems are sometimes referred to as a disk channel.

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

In a telecommunications network, a switch is a device that channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to the specific output port that will take the data toward its intended destination. In the traditional circuit-switched telephone network, one or more switches are used to set up a dedicated though temporary connection or circuit for an exchange between two or more parties. On an Ethernet local area network (LAN), a switch determines from the physical device (Media Access Control or MAC) address in each incoming message frame which output port to forward it to and out of. In a wide area packet-switched network such as the Internet, a switch determines from the IP address in each packet which output port to use for the next part of its trip to the intended destination.

In the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) communications model, a switch performs the layer 2 or Data-Link layer function. That is, it simply looks at each packet or data unit and determines from a physical address (the "MAC address") which device a data unit is intended for and switches it out toward that device. However, in wide area networks such as the Internet, the destination address requires a look-up in a routing table by a device known as a router. Some newer switches also perform routing functions (layer 3 or the Network layer functions in OSI) and are sometimes called IP switches.

On larger networks, the trip from one switch point to another in the network is called a hop. The time a switch takes to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its latency. The price paid for having the flexibility that switches provide in a network is this latency. Switches are found at the backbone and gateway levels of a network where one network connects with another and at the subnetwork level where data is being forwarded close to its destination or origin. The former are often known as core switches and the latter as desktop switches.

In the simplest networks, a switch is not required for messages that are sent and received within the network. For example, a local area network may be organized in a Token Ring or bus arrangement in which each possible destination inspects each message and reads any message with its address.

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

Virtual tape is an archival storage technology that makes it possible to save data as if it were being stored on tape although it may actually be stored on hard disk or on another storage medium. Benefits of virtual tape systems include better backup and recovery times and lower operating costs.

A special storage device manages less-frequently needed data so that it appears to be stored entirely on tape cartridges when some parts of it may actually be located in faster, hard disk storage. Virtual tape can be used with a hierarchical storage management (HSM) system in which data is moved as it falls through various usage thresholds to slower but less costly forms of storage media. Virtual tape may also be used as part of a storage area network (SAN) where less-frequently used or archived data can be managed by a single virtual tape server for a number of networked computers.

A virtual tape system offloads from the main computer the processing involved in deciding whether data should be available in the faster disk cache or written onto a tape cartridge. The virtual tape system also can manage data so that more of the space on a tape cartridge is actually used.

IBM and Storage Technology are well-established vendors of virtual tape systems. Sutmyn Storage sells a product that provides a virtual interface to existing IBM and other systems.

The programming for a virtual tape system is sometimes called a virtual tape server (VTS).

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

A tape drive is a device that stores computer data on magnetic tape, especially for backup and archiving purposes. Like an ordinary tape recorder, a tape drive records data on a loop of flexible celluloid-like material that can be read and also erased. Tape drives work either by using a traditional helical scan where the recording and playback heads touch the tape, or linear tape technology, where the heads never actually touch the tape. Drives can be rewinding, where the device issues a rewind command at the end of a session, or non-rewinding. Rewinding devices are most commonly used when a tape is to be unmounted at the end of a session after batch processing of large amounts of data (payroll is the classic example). Non-rewinding devices are useful for incremental backups and other applications where new files are added to the end of the previous session's files.

A benefit of a tape drive backup is that tapes have a large capacity for storing data and are very economical when compared to the cost of hard disk storage. A disadvantage is that tape drives store data sequentially, and the user can only access specific data by starting at the beginning and rolling through the tape until the desired data is located.

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

1) In data storage, an array is a method for storing information on multiple devices. 2) In general, an array is a number of items arranged in some specified way - for example, in a list or in a three-dimensional table.

3) In computer programming languages, an array is a group of objects with the same attributes that can be addressed individually, using such techniques as subscripting.

4) In random access memory (RAM), an array is the arrangement of memory cells.

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

Fibre Channel is a technology for transmitting data between computer devices at data rates of up to 4 Gbps (and 10 Gbps in the near future). Fibre Channel is especially suited for connecting computer servers to shared storage devices and for interconnecting storage controllers and drives. Since Fibre Channel is three times as fast, it has begun to replace the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) as the transmission interface between servers and clustered storage devices. Fibre channel is more flexible; devices can be as far as ten kilometers (about six miles) apart if optical fiber is used as the physical medium. Optical fiber is not required for shorter distances, however, because Fibre Channel also works using coaxial cable and ordinary telephone twisted pair.

Fibre Channel offers point-to-point, switched, and loop interfaces. It is designed to interoperate with SCSI, the Internet Protocol (IP) and other protocols, but has been criticized for its lack of compatibility - primarily because (like in the early days of SCSI technology) manufacturers sometimes interpret specifications differently and vary their implementations.

Standards for Fibre Channel are specified by the Fibre Channel Physical and Signalling standard, and the ANSI X3.230-1994, which is also ISO 14165-1.

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

Serial-attached SCSI (SAS) is a method used in accessing computer peripheral devices that employs a serial (one bit at a time) means of digital data transfer over thin cables. The method is specified in the American National Standard Institute standard called Serial-attached SCSI (Small Computer System Interface), also known as ANSI/INCITS 376-2003. In the business enterprise, serial-attached SCSI is especially of interest for access to mass storage devices, particularly external hard drives.

Serial-attached SCSI offers advantages over older parallel technologies. The cables are thinner, and the connectors are less bulky. Serial data transfer allows the use of longer cables than parallel data transfer. Problems related to crosstalk are less likely in serial interfaces than in parallel interfaces, because there are fewer conductors in the cables. The hardware for serial interfaces is less costly than the hardware for equivalent parallel interfaces.

SAS offers data transfer rates in excess of 3 gigabits per second (Gbps) with potential rates of 10 Gbps or more. Serial-attached SCSI is said to offer an ideal solution for businesses with substantial storage, backup, and archiving demands.

Devices that employ SAS are compatible with Serial ATA (Advanced Technology Attachment) devices. In addition, SAS products are compatible with devices that employ earlier SCSI technologies. External disk drives, host adapters, and expanders were the first devices to employ SAS. The technology is expected to expand to printers, scanners, digital cameras, and other peripherals.

Data storage hardware quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

Serial ATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment or SATA) is a new standard for connecting hard drives into computer systems. As its name implies, SATA is based on serial signaling technology, unlike current IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) hard drives that use parallel signaling.

SATA has several practical advantages over the parallel signaling (also called Parallel ATA or PATA) that has been used in hard drives since the 1980s. SATA cables are more flexible, thinner, and less massive than the ribbon cables required for conventional PATA hard drives. SATA cables can be considerably longer than PATA ribbon cables, allowing the designer more latitude in the physical layout of a system. Because there are fewer conductors (only 7 in SATA as compared with 40 in PATA), crosstalk and electromagnetic interference (EMI) are less likely to be troublesome. The signal voltage is much lower as well (250 mV for SATA as compared with 5 V for PATA).

Quiz: Data Storage ANSWERS

ANSWER KEY:1c;2e;3b;4c;5c;6b;7e;8b;9a;10e

Quiz: Database Basics ANSWERS

ANSWER KEY:1a;2b;3b;4b;5e;6d;7b;8a;9a;10c

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

Tiered storage is the assignment of different categories of data to different types of storage media in order to reduce total storage cost. Categories may be based on levels of protection needed, performance requirements, frequency of use, and other considerations. Since assigning data to particular media may be an ongoing and complex activity, some vendors provide software for automatically managing the process based on a company-defined policy.

As an example of tiered storage, tier 1 data (such as mission-critical, recently accessed, or top secret files) might be stored on expensive and high-quality media such as double-parity RAIDs (redundant arrays of independent disks). Tier 2 data (such as financial, seldom-used, or classified files) might be stored on less expensive media in conventional storage area networks (SANs). As the tier number increased, cheaper media could be used. Thus, tier 3 in a 3-tier system might contain event-driven, rarely used, or unclassified files on recordable compact discs (CD-Rs) or tapes.

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

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Continuous data protection (CDP), also called continuous backup, is a storage system in which all the data in an enterprise is backed up whenever any change is made. In effect, CDP creates an electronic journal of complete storage snapshots, one storage snapshot for every instant in time that data modification occurs.

A major advantage of CDP is the fact that it preserves a record of every transaction that takes place in the enterprise. In addition, if the system becomes infected with a virus or Trojan, or if a file becomes mutilated or corrupted and the problem is not discovered until some time later, it is always possible to recover the most recent clean copy of the affected file. A CDP system with disk storage offers data recovery in a matter of seconds -- much less time than is the case with tape backups or archives. Installation of CDP hardware and programming is straightforward and simple and does not put existing data at risk.

The market for CDP products is expected to grow as businesses discover the advantages of maintaining a continuous journal of backups or archives generated over time. This is especially true for enterprises in which data changes often, the amount of stored data is large, or serious injury to the business could result from lost data, damaged files, or extended downtime.

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

Content-addressed storage (CAS) is a method of providing fast access to fixed content (data that is not expected to be updated) by assigning it a permanent place on disk. CAS makes data retrieval straightforward by storing it in such a way that an object cannot be duplicated or modified once it has been stored; thus, its location is unambiguous. The term was coined by EMC Corporation when it released its Centera product in 2002.

When an object is stored in CAS, the object is given a name that uniquely identifies it, and that also specifies the storage location. This type of address is called a "content address." It eliminates the need for an centralized index, so it is not necessary to track the location of stored data. Once an object has been stored, it cannot be deleted until the specified retention period has expired. In CAS, data is stored on disk, rather than on tape. This streamlines the process of searching for stored objects. A backup copy of every object is stored to enhance reliability and to minimize the risk of catastrophic data loss. In the event of a hardware failure, the system administrator is notified by a remote monitoring system.

A significant advantage of CAS is the fact that it minimizes the storage space consumed by data backups and archives, preventing what some engineers call a "data tsunami" (the overwhelming buildup of information, much of which is obsolete, redundant, or unnecessary). Another advantage is authentication. Because there is only one copy of an object, verifying its legitimacy is a simple process.

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

Wide-area file services (WAFS) is a storage technology that makes it possible to access a remote data center as though it were local. Among other benefits, WAFS enables businesses, academic institutions, and government agencies having numerous branch offices to centrally manage data backups in real time.

Other benefits of WAFS include immediate, round-the-clock read-write access to backed-up data for all end users in the network, low latency and rapid data transfer speed comparable to local area network (LAN) technologies, continuous real-time updating of backup content, enhanced data security, and simple, rapid system recovery in the event the network is compromised or damaged. Additional security of data may be possible by backing up the data on multiple servers at different physical locations.

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

InfiniBand is an architecture and specification for data flow between processors and I/O devices that promises greater bandwidth and almost unlimited expandability in tomorrow's computer systems. In the next few years, InfiniBand is expected to gradually replace the existing Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) shared-bus approach used in most of today's personal computers and servers. Offering throughput of up to 2.5 gigabytes per second and support for up to 64,000 addressable devices, the architecture also promises increased reliability, better sharing of data between clustered processors, and built-in security. InfiniBand is the result of merging two competing designs, Future I/O, developed by Compaq, IBM, and Hewlett-Packard, with Next Generation I/O, developed by Intel, Microsoft, and Sun Microsystems. For a short time before the group came up with a new name, InfiniBand was called System I/O.

Existing PCs and server systems are hampered with an inflexible and relatively slow internal data flow system, including today's 64-bit, 66 MHz PCI bus. As the amount of data coming into and flowing between components in the computer increases, the existing bus system becomes a bottleneck. InfiniBand provides a revolutionary new approach. Instead of sending data in parallel (typically 32 bits at a time, but in some computers 64 bits) across the backplane bus (data path), InfiniBand specifies a serial (bit-at-a-time) bus. Fewer PINs and other electrical connections are required, saving manufacturing cost and improving reliability. The serial bus can carry multiple channels of data at the same time in a multiplexing signal. InfiniBand also supports multiple memory areas, each of which can addressed by both processors and storage devices.

Unlike the present I/O subsystem in a computer, InfiniBand seems like a full-fledged network. The InfiniBand Trade Organization describes the new bus as an I/O network and views the bus itself as a switch since control information will determine the route a given message follows in getting to its destination address. In fact, InfiniBand uses Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) with its 128-bit address, allowing an almost limitless amount of device expansion.

With InfiniBand, data is transmitted in packets that together form a communication called a message. A message can be a remote direct memory access (RDMA) read or write operation, a channel send or receive message, a transaction-based operation (that can be reversed), or a multicast transmission. Like the channel model many mainframe users are familiar with, all transmission begins or ends with a channel adapter. Each processor (your PC or a data center server, for example) has what is called a host channel adapter (HCA) and each peripheral device has a target channel adapter (TCA). These adapters can potentially exchange information that ensures security or work with a given Quality of Servic

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

IP storage is a general term for several approaches to using the Internet Prototol (IP) in a storage area network (SAN) usually over Gigabit Ethernet. IP storage is an alternative to the Fibre Channel framework of the traditional SAN. Proponents of IP-based storage claim that it offers a number of benefits over the Fibre Channel alternative, and will promote the wide-spread adoption of SANs that was predicted when they were first introduced. Although SANs have been around since the mid-to-late 1990s, they haven't enjoyed the market acceptance that developers expected. Fibre Channel issues, including expense, complexity, and interoperability issues are frequently cited as the cause. According to proponents, IP storage provides a solution to these issues that will enable the SAN to fulfill its early promise.

For example, taking advantage of common network hardware and technologies may make IP SANs less complicated to deploy than Fibre Channel. The hardware components are less expensive, and because the technologies are widely known and used there are few interoperability issues and training costs are lower. Furthermore, the ubiquity of TCP/IP networks makes it possible to extend or connect SANs worldwide. There are several technology alternatives currently used for IP SANs: iSCSI (Internet SCSI) replaces Fibre Channel, while alternatives such as iFCP (Internet Fibre Channel Protocol) and FCIP (Fibre Channel over IP) offer hybrid approaches that can be used to extend Fibre Channel frameworks and to migrate from them to an IP storage network.

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

Tape and disk encryption product roundup

More than 50 million Americans have had their personal information compromised in the last year, and many of those security breaches have been the result of tape loss. With so much data at risk -- and the potential penalties involved -- storage administrators are struggling to protect sensitive information at rest in the data center and in flight across public networks. Vendors also see the problem, and are stepping forward with software and appliances that can ease implementation. The trick is to sort through the proliferation of offerings and find a product that meets your business requirements without breaking the budget. This article provides an overview of encryption and its role in the enterprise, highlights the leading vendors who offer disk and tape encryption products, and offers some advice to help ease purchasing and implementation issues.

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

Virtualization is the pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console. Storage virtualization is commonly used in a storage area network (SAN). The management of storage devices can be tedious and time-consuming. Storage virtualization helps the storage administrator perform the tasks of backup, archiving, and recovery more easily, and in less time, by disguising the actual complexity of the SAN.

Users can implement virtualization with software applications or by using hardware and software hybrid appliances. The technology can be placed on different levels of a storage area network.

Data storage technologies quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

Thin provisioning, coined by 3Pardata, raises eyebrows


Storage managers in the market for a new SAN array may be tempted by a new feature of some arrays -- thin provisioning (TP) pioneered by 3PARdata Inc. -- but not all users who have tried it are sold on the concept.

Thin provisioning, sometimes called oversubscription, is a way to quickly get capacity to an application. It's a feature of some virtualized storage arrays where the storage controller allocates storage to the application but releases it only when the capacity is required. When utilization of that storage approaches a predetermined threshold, the array automatically expands the volume without involving the storage administrator.

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Over-provisioning a thing of the past 
   
Thin provisioning helps storage administrators break the old habit of overprovisioning storage -- a common practice used to protect against having to continually grow volumes and LUNs. Vendors with thin provisioning include 3Par as well as Cloverleaf Communications Inc., DataCore Software Corp., LeftHand Networks Inc., Network Appliance Inc. and Pillar Data Systems Inc..

Some users love thin provisioning. Warren Habib, chief technology officer at Fotolog Inc., an online photo blog site in New York City, has seen his storage administration duties dwindle to next to nothing since his firm rearchitected its infrastructure and added a 3Par InServ array. Before putting in the InServ array, Fotolog's file serving was handled by 120 standalone file servers with internal storage, and "keeping up with storage growth was impossible," Habib said. Now, whenever Fotolog's InServ sees the file server volumes running out of space, it automatically grows them by 32 GB. "I didn't have to check on the system capacity for three months," he said.

But other users haven't had such idyllic experiences. Nick Poolos, systems/network specialist at The Ohio State University's Fisher College of Business, saw the NTFS file systems mounted on a Compellent Storage Center SAN grow abnormally large when using the array's Dynamic Capacity feature.

At issue, according to Bob Fine, Compellent's product marketing manager, is Microsoft's "undelete" feature, which just marks blocks to be released without actually erasing them. Rather than reusing released blocks, NTFS prefers new, unused blocks, which caused the thin-provisioned volume to swell to its maximum allocated size. Fine says doing a periodic disk defragmentation may be a workaround. He adds that most users will never witness this problem because most environments grow gradually and don't delete much data.

Arun Taneja, founder, president and consulting analyst at the Taneja Group, Hopkinton, Mass., warns of another possible thin-provisioning pitfall: Some file systems, for performance reasons, like to spread their metadata across all the space they have been assigned.

"In many cases, if you allocate 100 GB to the application, the application (or the file system associated with it) will mark all the entire 100 GB with metadata," Taneja writes. "If the application behaves in this fashion, realize that 100 GB is gone from the storage pool and is no longer available. This defeats the entire purpose of TP in the first place."

Those reasons likely contributed to thin provisioning's rank at the bottom of TheInfoPro's recent Wave 7 index of hot technologies, reports Rob Stevenson, managing director, storage practice at TheInfoPro. As a former storage administrator, Stevenson's personal experience taught him that "thin provisioning was application sensitive and introduced another pain into the infrastructure certification process." He found that "each file system, relational database and NAS appliance allocated storage differently, and it typically confused the thin-provisioning product."

Some storage vendors think thin provisioning is a downright bad idea. "If your goal with a SAN is ease of use and consolidation, you shouldn't be telling administrators to lie and then have to manage the lie," said Eric Schott, director of product management at IP SAN vendor EqualLogic Inc. If, from a host perspective, it looks like there's a lot of available space, a user might decide to use it. And if the array can't provision new storage fast enough, the application will crash.

Furthermore, Schott said, the underlying reason for thin provisioning -- that it's a pain to grow storage volumes -- isn't true anymore. Expanding a disk is a relatively simple process with most modern operating systems, he said. However, he concedes that thin provisioning could be useful if you're running some legacy operating systems.

Nevertheless, SAN vendors offering thin provisioning report that their users have embraced it. Compellent's Fine says that approximately 80% of Storage Center users have Dynamic Capacity in place. The remaining 20%, he says, aren't using it because "old habits die hard," not because there's anything wrong with it.

hay
-feed/food

Quiz: Virtual virtuosity

1. Traditionally, you take a bow after this. The word also refers to the speed at which your PC operates. What is it?
Answer

2. This term sounds like something that could start a fire. In computing, however, it refers to a 32- and 64-bit microprocessor architecture from Sun Microsystems based on reduced instruction set computing. What is it?
Answer

3. Mountain or molehill? This term describes the ability of a computer application or product to continue to function well when it is changed in size or volume in order to meet a user need. What is it?
Answer

4. This generic name describes the series of Intel microprocessors that began with the 80286. What is it?
Answer

5. Apple, IBM, and Motorola collaborated on an open standard for this microprocessor architecture. What is it?
Answer

6. The Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence project is only one example of this computing model, which applies the resources of many networked computers to a single problem. What is it?
Answer

7. This program emulates Windows 95, Windows 98, Windows NT, as well as IBM OS/2, or Linux on a Macintosh personal computer. What is it?
Answer

8. This practice can help an administrator perform the tasks of backup, archiving, and recovery more easily, and in less time, by disguising the actual complexity of the SAN. What is it?
Answer

9. This virtualization program allows multiple operating systems, which can include different operating systems or multiple instances of the same operating system, to share a single hardware processor. What is it?
Answer

10. This practice relieves data center pressure by masking the details of server resources from users while optimizing resource sharing. What is it?
Answer

Virtual LAN quiz

1. This is the unit of data that is routed between an origin and a destination on the Internet or any other packet-switched network.

2. This is a way to use a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization's network.

3. ms stands for this.

4. On a local area network (LAN) or other network, this is your computer's unique hardware number.

5. This device channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to the specific output port that will take the data toward its intended destination.

6. This is the abbreviation for millions of bits per second.

7. The unit of data that is routed between an origin and a destination on the Internet or any other packet-switched network is known as this.

8. This organization fosters the development of standards that often become national and international standards.

9. A device or, in some cases, software in a computer, that determines the next network point to which a packet should be forwarded toward its destination is known as this.

10. This is a geographically dispersed telecommunications network.

Newsmaker quiz

1. This company reported that Microsoft's upcoming Windows Server Virtualization and Xen hypervisors have a similar architecture. What company was it?
Answer

2. Don Becker, co-founder of the Beowulf project, recently compared virtualization to an alternative approach to the same problems. What is it?
Answer

3. A recent study by TheInfoPro(TIP) Inc. demonstrated that this type of hardware is gaining respect among IT professionals alongside virtualization in the data center. What was it?
Answer

4. This major virtualization player is slated to release a product for Mac users. What is it?
Answer

5. International Truck and Engine Corp. based in Illinois saved several million dollars by virtualizing their servers. How much did they save for each virtual machine running?
a. $3,500
b. $5,500
c. $7,500
Answer

6. Who is the director of data products for VMware?
Answer

7. The Computing Technology Industry Association recently polled 1,000 high tech workers. What percentage of survey respondents said they were currently job-hunting?
a. 28%
b. 58%
c. 78%
Answer

8. This Ohio-based independent IT consultant and subcontractor recently started promoting virtualization as a disaster recovery tool. What is it?
Answer

9. In one of our columns, expert Andrew Kutz explains how to install Subversion for VMware ESX. How many steps does it take?
Answer

10. This virtualization program is the best for a heterogeneous environment according to author Wade Reynolds. What is it?
Answer

Top 25 data storage terms quiz

1. This is hard disk storage that is set up with its own network address rather than being attached to the department computer that is serving applications to a network's workstation users.
What is it?

2. This is a new standard for connecting hard drives into computer systems. It is based on serial signaling technology, unlike current IDE hard drives that use parallel signaling.
What is it?

3. This technology offers point-to-point, switched and loop interfaces. It is designed to interoperate with SCSI, IP and other protocols.
What is it?

4. This is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities, developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force.
What is it?

5. This is a unique identifier used on a SCSI bus that enables it to differentiate between up to eight separate devices.
What is it?

6. This is a way of storing the same data in different places on multiple hard disks. By placing data on multiple disks, I/O operations can overlap in a balanced way, improving performance.
What is it?

7. This is a high-speed special-purpose network (or subnetwork) that interconnects different kinds of data storage devices with associated data servers on behalf of a larger network of users.
What is it?

8. This is a method used in accessing computer peripheral devices that employs a serial means of digital data transfer over thin cables.
What is it?

9. This is a method of reducing storage needs by eliminating redundant data.
What is it?

10. This is the pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console.
What is it?

11. This is the assignment of different categories of data to different types of storage media in order to reduce total storage cost. Categories may be based on levels of protection needed, performance requirements, frequency of use and other considerations.
What is it?

12. This is a storage system in which all the data in an enterprise is backed up whenever any change is made.
What is it?

13. This is the activity of copying files or databases so that they will be preserved in case of equipment failure or other catastrophe.
What is it?

14. This technology focuses on file-level activities rather than block-level activities.
What is it?

15. This technology provides the benefits of disk storage in a system that emulates a tape library to existing backup software.
What is it?

16. This is a single storage system that can support both file access and block access.
What is it?

17. This is a feature of storage security that is gaining favor among enterprises that use storage area networks (SANs).
What is it?

18. Without this practice, backing up data is virtually useless.
What is it?

19. This ensures proper adherence to government regulations regarding the integrity, accessibility and retention of important data.
What is it?

20. There are endless rules and regulations in this area of storage technology.
What is it?

21. This is a repository for the storage, management, and disemination of data in which the mechanical, lighting, electrical and computer systems are designed for maximum energy efficiency and minimum environmental impact.
What is it?

22. This is the process of assigning storage, usually in the form of server disk drive space, in order to optimize the performance of a storage area network.
What is it?

23. Simply stated, these are large boxes that hold lots of hard disks.
What is it?

24. This consists of the precautions taken so that the effects of a disaster will be minimized.
What is it?

25. This is the practice of collecting computer files that have been packaged together for backup, to transport to some other location, for saving away from the computer so that more hard disks can be made available, or for some other purpose.
What is it?

Business continuity plan quiz

1. What should be the first step in business continuity planning?
Answer

2. This type of plan specifies an organization's planned strategies for post-failure procedures.
Answer

3. This type of plan specifies a means of maintaining essential services at the crisis location.
Answer

4. This particular plan specifies a means of recovering business functions at an alternate location.
Answer

5. This type of plan specifies a means of dealing with external events that can seriously impact the organization.
Answer

6. What type of technology makes it feasible for an organization to maintain up-to-date copies of data in geographically dispersed locations so that data access can continue uninterrupted if one location is disabled?
Answer

How did you score?
6 correct: You're BC brilliant
3-5 correct: You've got BC bravado
0-2 correct: You're a BC beginner

Quiz: Storage Smarts

l. This is a general term for all forms of solid state memory that have a continuous source of power and do not need to have their memory contents periodically refreshed.
a. flash memory
b. random access memory
c. volatile memory
d. nonvolatile memory

2. This type of data storage uses laser beams to store computer-generated data in three dimensions. The goal is to store a lot of data in a little bit of space.
a. digital data storage
b. virtual memory
c. holographic storage
d. optical disk storage

3. This is a set of evolving ANSI standard electronic interfaces that allow personal computers to communicate with peripheral hardware such as disk drives, tape drives, CD-ROM drives, printers, and scanners faster and more flexibly than previous interfaces.
a. ESCON
b. Fibre Channel
c. SCSI
d. ASCII

4. This is the process of dividing a body of data into blocks and spreading the data blocks across several partitions on several hard disks.
a. disk striping
b. RAID
c. logical partition ing
d. multiplexing

5. This amount of data is the equivalent of more than 300 feature-length movies, 40,000 faxes, 15,000 CDs converted to MP3 at high fidelity, or enough words that it would take every adult in America speaking at the same time for five minutes to say them all.
a. petabyte
b. terabyte
c. exabyte
d. megabyte

6. This is the practice of duplicating data in which each of multiple storage disks has its own SCSI controller. The use of redundant controllers enables continued data access as long as one of the controllers continues to function.
a. disk mirroring
b. disk duplexing
c. data replication
d. content caching

7. This is a compact disc (CD) format that allows repeated recording on a disc. It was introduced by Hewlett-Packard, Mitsubishi, Philips, Ricoh and Sony in a 1997 supplement to Philips and Sony's Orange Book. It is Orange Book III.
a. CD-RW
b. CD-MO
c. CD-R
d. CD-i

8. This type of storage media holds content in digital form that is written and read by a laser; these media include all the various CD and DVD variations, as well as optical jukeboxes and autochangers.
a. streaming media
b. magneto-optical drive media
c. real life media
d. optical media

9. This is the combination of hardware and software that moves data coming in to a network node out by the correct port (door) to the next node in the network.
a. router
b. gateway
c. switching fabric
d. bus

10. This is a standard unit of measure for designating the height in computer enclosures and rack cabinets. It equals 1.75 inches.
a. GB
b. U
c. kludge
d. n-tier

Quiz #2: Storage management

Question #11

This is policy-based management of file backup and archiving in a way that uses storage devices economically and without the user needing to be aware of when files are being retrieved from backup storage media.

a. ADSTAR Distributed Storage Management
b. content management system
c. spend management
d. Hierarchical Storage Management
e. Environmental Resources Management

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #12

This storage networking technology developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) carries SCSI commands over IP networks to facilitate data transfers over intranets and to manage storage over long distances.

a. Fibre Channel over IP
b. Voice over IP
c. Internet Small Computer System Interface
d. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
e. beaming

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #13

This is the use of a special storage device that manages less-frequently needed data so that it appears to be stored entirely on tape cartridges when some parts of it may actually be located in faster, hard disk storage.

a. virtual tape
b. linear tape
c. hard disk
d. bridge disk
e. 8-track tape

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Question #14

This is a backup operational mode in which the functions of a system component (such as a processor, server, network, or database, for example) are assumed by secondary system components when the primary component becomes unavailable through either failure or scheduled down time.

a. failover
b. Internet backup
c. local backup
d. data availability
e. standby

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Question #15

According to a Gartner Group document, a business continuance plan should include all but one of the following strategies. Which one is NOT included?

a. business resumption plan
b. business recovery plan
c. disaster recovery plan
d. consolidation plan
e. contingency plan

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Question #16

There are at least nine types of RAID plus a non-redundant array. Which type uses striping, dedicates one drive to storing parity information, and is best for single-user systems with long record applications?

a. RAID-O
b. RAID-1
c. RAID-3
d. RAID-7
e. RAID-101

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #17

This is a technology that enables the writing of data to a recordable compact disk incrementally, in multiple small blocks of data, rather than in a single block, or in blocks defined by tracks, the other two common methods.

a. packet writing
b. disk-at-once recording
c. track-at-once recording
d. write once, read many
e. audio grabbing

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Question #18

This term is used to refer to a computer's hard disks that haven't been configured according to the RAID system to increase fault tolerance and improve data access performance. The official term is "spanning."

a. disk cache
b. stripe
c. array
d. JBOD
e. menagerie

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Question #19

Ths is the reduction in size of data in order to save space or transmission time.

a. clustering
b. compression
c. consolidation
d. phase change
e. minifying

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Question #20

This is a form of magnetic tape and drive system used for computer data storage and archiving. A special compression algorithm, known as Digital Lempel Ziv 1 (DLZ1), facilitates storage and retrieval of data at high speeds and in large quantities.

a. AIT (advanced intelligent tape)
b. LTO (linear tape open)
c. DLT (digital linear tape)
d. Mammoth
e. Betamax

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Storage Management Survival School, Quiz one

Question #1

Which is NOT part of Jamie Gruener's planning roadmap?

a. Adding more components to your network
b. Quality of service (QoS)
c. Information Lifecycle Management
d. Modeling costs

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #2

According to Jamie Gruener, which is the first consideration you need to make when selecting a storage management tool?

a. Business analysis
b. Cost
c. Functionality
d. The vendor who offers the best gift

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #3

What is "Gap Analysis"?

a. The difference between capacity and disk space
b. The difference between virtualized data and actual data
c. What you need to get you from what you have to what you need
d. The difference between the Gap and J. Crew

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #4

Which financial analysis metric is the best for a cost analysis?
a. TCO
b. ROI
c. Break even analysis
d. A combination of all of the above

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #5

According to Jamie Gruener, what's the hardest part of storage management planning?

a. Convincing upper management to buy-in
b. Choosing the right product for your specific environment
c. Predicting growth
d. Implementing a plan

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #6

Which is NOT a best practice for optimal allocation?

a. Utilizing RAID 1, 1+0
b. Using RAID-5
c. Balancing I/O
d. Consolidation

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #7

What is the most popular tool for tracking allocation and configuration?

a. Excel
b. Word
c. Log file system
d. Basset hound

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #8

Which are the primary component(s) to the LUN mapping and masking process?

a. Enabling multiple server to see LUN numbers
b. Restricting server access
c. Only A
d. Only B
e. A and B

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #9

Which is critical when selecting a storage management tool?

a. Making sure the tool supports multiple levels of user security and privileges
b. Understanding tool licensing and what type of warranty exists
c. Knowing which architecture of the tool including platforms supported
d. All of the above

Click to see if you are correct!

Question #10

What is a soft zone?

a. A zone with no shell
b. A zone that follows the device that is part of the zone
c. A zone Where each server/HBA is in a separate zone
d. A zone that gives up a lot of touchdowns

Click to see if you are correct!

Quiz #3: Storage networking

Question #21

This is hard disk storage that is set up with its own network address rather than being attached to the department computer that is serving applications to a network's workstation users.

a. storage area network
b. hard disk drive
c. network-attached storage
d. redundant array of independent disks
e. file cabinet

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #22

Storage networking expert Marc Farley defines this term as the process of securing end-to-end connections for a network. In telecommunications terminology, it means finding network links from whatever assortment of service providers there are to build the necessary point-to-point connections.

a. wiring
b. provisioning
c. routing
d. mapping
e. circling

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #23

SAN expert Christopher Poelker shared an extensive list of principal benefits of moving to a SAN. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

a. Protect critical data
b. Staff utilization for server management
c. Management costs as a percentage of storage costs
d. Reduce data center rack/floor space
e. Improved word processing

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #24

This is an open protocol used to control data backup and recovery communications between primary and secondary storage in a heterogeneous network environment.

a. Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
b. Common Management Information Protocol (CMIP)
c. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
d. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
e. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #25

This is the ability to access a particular LUN from either two different paths on a single host simultaneously (load balanced), or by two separate hosts within a cluster environment (distributed lock management).

a. remote access
b. direct access
c. concurrent access
d. conditional access
e. access denied

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Question #26

This is a fundamental technique for SAN management that can be implemented several different ways. In all cases, it serves to limit users' access to the appropriate storage devices. This increases security and decreases traffic over the network.

a. striping
b. mapping
c. tunneling
d. zoning
e. locking

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #27

This is a geographically dispersed telecommunications network. It may be privately owned or rented, but the term usually connotes the inclusion of public (shared user) networks.

a. wide area network (WAN)
b. local area network (LAN)
c. metropolitan area network (MAN)
d. storage area network (SAN)
e. personal area network (PAN)

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #28

There are six S's to SAN (storage area network), says Scott Drummond, IBM's storage networking program director. Which of the following is not one of them?

a. servers
b. software
c. storage
d. solid-state
e. SAN fabric

Click below to see if you are correct.

Question #29

This is a transmission technology based on the most widely-installed local area network (LAN) technology. It provides a data rate of 1 billion bits per second, is defined in the IEEE 802.3 standard and is currently being used as the backbone in many enterprise networks.

a. iSCSI
b. Fibre Channel
c. Gigabit Ethernet
d. asynchronous transfer mode (ATM)
e. UHF

Click to see if you are correct.

Question #30

This is a technology that puts data from different sources together on an optical fiber, with each signal carried at the same time on its own separate light wavelength. It promises wide bandwidth communications for SANs.

a. frequency-division multiplexing (FDM)
b. dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)
c. time-division multiplexing (TDM)
d. traditional multiplexing (MUX)
e. multiplexer

Quiz #5: Storage area networks

Question #41
SAN expert Chris Poelker recently listed his six-step prescription for SAN backup. Listed below are four of those steps but which one is NOT one of the six?
a. Consolidate your server environment using clustering for better availability with fewer servers
b. Incorporate all servers into the SAN
c. Use SAN based storage for file services if you can
d. For remote servers, if your network supports it, use iSCSI connections into the SAN to consolidate backup across the enterprise
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #42
This is an Internet protocol-based storage networking technology developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). Its mechanisms enable the transmission of Fibre Channel (FC) information by tunneling data between storage area network (SAN) facilities over IP networks; this capacity facilitates data sharing over a geographically distributed enterprise.
a. iSCSI
b. iFCP
c. FCIP
d. SCSI
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #43
Your environment supports three different types of operating systems: Linux, Win2000 and Tru64. Can you use all three with SAN technology?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only Linux and Win2000
d. Only Tru64
e. None of the above
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #44
This is the primary organization for fostering the development of technology standards in the United States. It works with industry groups and long-established computer standards from this organization include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).
a. ISO
b. BCBS
c. IBTA
d. ANSI
e. IEC
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #45
How can you tell the difference between SCSI and IDE hard drives?
a. Check the instruction manual
b. Ask the guy sitting next to you
c. Read the labels
d. There is no noticeable difference
e. Ask the vendor
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #46
This technology transmits data between computer devices at a data rate of 1 or 2 Gbps (and 10 Gbps in the near future). It is especially suited for connecting computer servers to shared storage devices and for interconnecting storage controllers and drives.
a. Fiber connectivity
b. Legacy cabling
c. High speed Internet
d. Fibre Channel
e. Fiber optic
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #47
SAN expert Chris Poelker pointed out the many benefits of moving towards a SAN strategy. Listed below are five benefits. Which one is NOT listed by Chris?
a. Increased disk utilization
b. Decreased workload
c. Improved DR capabilities
d. Improved overall availability
e. Support server clustering
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #48
This is a network -- typically a storage network -- that channels incoming data flow from any of multiple input ports to the output port. Used with multiple storage disk drives, it is said to be able to improve latency and to ensure "fairness."
a. Switch-on-a-chip
b. External storage
c. Fibre Channel
d. Salsa-on-a-chip
e. Direct-attached storage
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #49
This is a centralized repository for business information that provides common data management and protection, as well as data sharing functions, through connections to numerous computer systems.
a. File storage
b. Enterprise storage
c. Lock box
d. Block storage
e. Savings and Loan
Click to see if you are correct.

Question #50
SAN expert Christopher Poelker says that in general, there are a few basic areas where employing a SAN can reduce overall storage costs significantly. Which of the five choices listed below is NOT one them?
a. Availability
b. Storability
c. Management
d. Disk utilization
e. Backup

Storage: Do you speak geek?

1. This is a temporary storage area in a computer where the operating system, application programs, and other data in current use are kept so that they can be quickly reached by the computer's processor. It maintains data only as long as a computer is running and reloads it each time the computer is turned on.
What is it?

2. This is a type of RAM chip that improves the time to read from memory on faster microprocessors.
What is it?

3. This is a user-modifiable read-only memory that can be erased and rewritten repeatedly through the application of higher than normal electrical voltage.
What is it?

4. This is a special battery-powered form of RAM in certain Macintosh computers that stores vital system information, such as the date, time, and configuration settings. Because PRAM is powered by an internal battery, the information isn't lost when you turn the computer off as it is with regular RAM.
What is it?

5. This is an adaptation of the CD that is designed to store computer data in the form of text and graphics, as well as hi-fi stereo sound.
What is it?

6. This is a type of constantly-powered nonvolatile memory that can be erased and rewritten, often used to hold control code, such as the basic input/output system (BIOS), in a personal computer.
What is it?

7. This is very high-performance video RAM that is dual-ported and has about 25% more bandwidth than VRAM but costs less, and is more efficient to read data for use in block fills and text drawing.
What is it?

8. This is often called the frame buffer, it's a special arrangement of dynamic RAM (DRAM) used to store image data for a computer display.
What is it?

9. This is a protocol-based approach in which all signals to RAM are on the same line rather than separated by type; since access time does not depend on synchronizing operations on multiple lines, SLDRAM promises RAM speed of up to 800 MHz and can operate at twice the system clock rate.
What is it?

10. This is moderately fast and inexpensive clock-synchronized RAM that is used for video memory.
What is it?

RAID technology quiz

1. When run by itself, this type of RAID, which does not live up to its name, reduces the level of protection for data.
Answer
2. This type of drive suffers from reliability concerns, causing many Tier 2 storage users to embrace dual-parity schemes, like RAID 6.
Answer

3. This RAID type is seen in SATA environments.
Answer

4. On which RAID level is all of the data on one disk copied exactly onto a second disk, with neither disk being primary or master?
Answer

5. Although storage arrays can gather a huge number of disks, how many disks in a RAID group do most general-purpose servers employ?
Answer
6. At what level of RAID is the parity divided, with a share being given to each disk in the array?
Answer

7. This RAID level is a combination of two basic RAID techniques. It combines striping with independent data disks with distributed parity.
Answer

8. What can be used to accomplish redundancy where contents are directly duplicated onto another drive?
Answer

9. This is the process of dividing a body of data into blocks and spreading the data blocks across several partitions on several hard disks.
Answer

10. This RAID level confers benefits in recovery and reliability, albeit at the cost of halving the storage capacity of the RAID array.
Answer

Quiz: Improve your memory!

1. If you loaded your pickup truck full of books, how much data would it hold?
a. 650 megabytes
b. a half-terabyte
c. a gigabyte
Answer

2. The Blu-ray format uses a blue-violet laser to increase storage density -- what color laser do DVD drives use to write data?
Answer

3. This is a software utility used to increase storage efficiency by rearranging discontiguous file segments. What is it?
Answer

4. Which of these sequences lists the following in increasing magnitude?
a. petabyte, terabyte, exabyte
b. terabyte, petabyte, exabyte
c. terabyte, exabyte, petabyte
Answer

5. How many feature-length movies could you store on a terabyte disk?
a. Almost 200
b. 200-300
c. Over 300
Answer

6. Which of the following statements is true?
  a. A high-resolution photograph requires as much storage space as a short novel.
  b. A high-resolution photograph requires twice as much storage space as a short novel.
  c. A high-resolution photograph requires half as much storage space as a short novel.
Answer

7. What's the most information a DVD can hold?
a. 650 megabytes
b. 17 gigabytes
c. 34 gigabytes
Answer

8. Help me Obi-Wan Kenobi! This type of storage uses laser beams to store computer-generated data in three dimensions. What is it?
Answer

9. A diskette is a small removeable storage format in a rigid casing -- so why are they often called floppies?
Answer

10. What does DVD stand for?
a. digital video disc
b. nothing
c. digital versatile disc
d. data-versatile disc
Answer

Data storage hardware quiz

1. This is a new standard for connecting hard drives into computer systems. It is based on serial signaling technology, unlike current IDE hard drives that use parallel signaling.
What is it?

2. This is a method used in accessing computer peripheral devices that employs a serial means of digital data transfer over thin cables.
What is it?

3. This allows transmittal of data between computer devices at data rates of up to 4Gbps.
What is it?

4. This is a method for storing information on multiple devices.
What is it?

5. This is a device that stores computer data on a loop of flexible celluloid-like material that can be read and also erased.
What is it?

6. This is an archival storage technology that makes it possible to save data as if it were being stored on tape although it may actually be stored on hard disk or another storage medium.
What is it?

7. This is a device that channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to the specific output port that will take the data toward its intended destination.
What is it?

8. This is a circuit board and/or integrated circuit adapter that provides input/output processing and physical connectivity between a server and a storage device.
What is it?

9. This is a kind of copper cable that includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis.
What is it?

10. This is the technology associated with the transmission of information as light pulses along a glass or plastic wire or fiber.
What is it?

Quiz: Data Storage

Computer storage is the holding of data in an electromagnetic form for access by a computer processor. Primary storage is data in random access memory (RAM) and other "built-in" devices. Secondary storage is data on hard disk, tapes, and other external devices.

1. This is a utility that rearranges your discontiguous files and freespace on your computer so that your files are stored in contiguous unitsand free space is consolidated in one contiguous block.
a. degaussing
b. patch
c. defragmenter
d. parser
e. logicalblock addressing

2. This is a company that provides computer storage space and relatedmanagement to other companies.
a. vortal
b. storagearea network
c. storagemedium
d. bastion host
e. storageservice provider

3. This is a format for storing and backing up computer data on tapethat evolved from the Digital Audio Tape (DAT) technology.
a. TapeArchive
b. DigitalData Storage
c. virtualtape system
d. AudioInterchange File Format
e. dataaggregation

4. This is a storage management system especially designed for movinglarge files and large amounts of data around a network.
a. hierarchicalstorage management
b. enterpriseresource management
c. highperformance storage system
d. distributedfile system
e. holographicstorage

5. This is a form of static random access memory whose contents aresaved when a computer is turned off or loses its external power source.
a. SynchBurstSRAM
b. staticIP
c. nonvolatilestorage
d. magnetoresistiverandom access memory
e. directmemory access

6. This is a centralized repository for business information that providescommon data management and protection, as well as data sharing functions,through connections to numerous (and possibly dissimilar) computer systems.
a. callcenter
b. enterprisestorage network
c. GrandCentral Station
d. networkinformation system
e. ADSTARDistributed Storage Management

7. This is programmable read-only memory that can be erased by shiningan intense ultraviolet light through a window in the memory chip so thatthe memory can be re-used.
a. SequentialCouleur avec Memoire
b. virtualmemory
c. gratinglight valve technology
d. extremeultraviolet lithography
e. erasableprogrammable read-only memory

8. This is a way of storing the same data in different placeson multiple hard disks.
a. doubledata rate synchronous dynamic random access memory
b. redundantarray of independent disks
c. network-attachedstorage
d. extendeddata output (EDO) RAM
e. randomaccess method of accounting and control

9. This is a data storage technology that allows information tobe written to a disk a single time and prevents the drive from erasingthe data.
a. writeonce / read many
b. backupdomain control
c. singleinstruction multiple data
d. permanentvirtual circuit
e. compactdisk / read-only-memory, extended architecture

10. This is what might occur when a program or process tries to storemore data in a temporary data storage area than it was intended to hold.
a. programtemporary fix
b. bluescreen of death
c. fatalexception
d. sharedmemory
e. bufferoverflow

Quiz: Database Basics

1. This is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally-described tables from which data can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the database tables.
a. relational database
b. array
c. file allocation table
d. splay tree
e. Venn diagram

2. This is a standard interactive and programming language for getting information from and updating a database.
a. Dynamic Data Exchange
b. Structured Query Language
c. ASCII
d. Erlang programming language
e. WebLogic

3. In creating a database, this is the process of organizing it into tables insuch a way that the results of using the database are always unambiguous.
a. probability
b. normalization
c. data modeling
d. Query by Example
e. virtual organization

4. In 1977, this company set out to prove that the prevailing theory that relationship databases lacked commercial viability, was wrong.
a. Hewlett-Packard
b. Oracle
c. Cognos
d. Solaris
e. Sybase

5. This family of products is IBM's cross-platform relational database management system.
a. DBA
b. B2B
c. PHP
d. RDF
e. DB2

6. This type of database, which can be used to mine data for business trends, doesn't require SQL queries, but instead allows a user to ask questions like "How many Aptivas have been sold in Nebraska so far this year?".
a. line information database
b. High Performance Storage System
c. object-oriented database management system
d. multidimensional database
e. functional specification

7. This is an open standard application programming interface (API) for accessing a database.
a. Universal Data Access
b. Open Database Connectivity
c. Topic Map Query Language
d. Open Data-Link Interface
e. command line interface

8. This term, used to describe a database that occupies magnetic storage in the terabyte range, describes a database that contains billions of table rows.
a. Very Large Database
b. holographic storage
c. Cold Fusion
d. giant
e. Electronic Data Interchange

9. This is a collection of descriptions about data objects that is created for the benefit of programmers and others who might need torefer to them.
a. data dictionary
b. stored procedure
c. Virtual File Allocation Table
d. Virtual Address eXtension
e. catalog

10. This term is used to describe the process of forecasting, or simply discovering patterns in data that can lead to predictions about the future.
a. customer relationship management
b. PERT chart
c. data mining
d. enterprise risk management
e. histogram

Data storage technologies quiz

Sit down, grab a pencil and some paper, and list what you think are the top 10 data storage technologies of 2006. Then, take our quick quiz to see how many match up to our top 10 picks. 1. Sometimes called oversubscription, this is a way to quickly get capacity to an application.
Answer

2. This is the pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console.
Answer

3. This technology can be used to protect data in flight across a network and at rest on tape in the data center.
Answer

4. This is an alternative to the Fibre Channel framework of the traditional SAN.
Answer

5. This is an architecture and specification for data flow between processors and I/O devices that promises greater bandwidth and almost unlimited expandability.
Answer

6. This is a storage technology that makes it possible to access a remote data center as though it were local.
Answer

7. This technology makes data retrieval straightforward by storing it in such a way that an object cannot be duplicated or modified once it has been stored; thus, its location is unambiguous.
Answer

8. This is a storage system in which all the data in an enterprise is backed up whenever any change is made.
Answer

9. This is sometimes called data reduction or commonality factoring and is another space-saving technology intended to eliminate redundant files on a storage system.
Answer

10. This technology is the assignment of different categories of data to different types of storage media in order to reduce total storage cost.
Answer

How did you score?
9-10 correct: You're a real hot techie tamale
6-8 correct: You're hot tech talented for sure
3-5 correct: You've got hot tech troubles
0-2 correct: Ho hum, just a tech tadpole

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

Answer: spambot

A spambot is a program designed to collect, or harvest, email addresses from the Internet in order to build mailing lists for sending unsolicited email, also known as spam. A spambot can gather email addresses from Web sites, newsgroups...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

Answer: opt-in email

Opt-in email is a Web marketing term for email that recipients have previously requested by signing up at a Web site or special ad banner. Typically, Web users are invited to sign up for promotional information about one or more categories of products or services. Those who sign up have thus "opted in"...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

Answer: direct email marketing

Direct email marketing is a format for email-based campaigns in which standalone advertisements are sent to a targeted list of recipients. The messages, which may be text, HTML or rich media, look like Web-based ads rather than typical email messages. A number of elements make direct email marketing different from spam...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

Answer: spam filter

A spam filter is a program that is used to detect unsolicited and unwanted email and prevent those messages from getting to a user's inbox. Like other types of filtering programs...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

Answer: clickthrough rate

In banner advertising on a Web site, the clickthrough rate (CTR) is the percentage of times that viewers of a Web page click on a given banner ad, causing a request for the advertiser's Web site to be transmitted to the viewer. For example, if two out of every 100 visitors to a Web page clicked on a given ad...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

Answer: UBE

UBE (unsolicited bulk email) is a formal term for spam. The most common type of UBE is unsolicited commercial email (UCE)...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

Answer: transactional email

Transactional email is a type of Web-based marketing in which email recipients can buy goods and services directly from an email message, without being redirected to the retailer's Web site. According to proponents, transactional email leads to significantly higher conversion rates -- the ratio of shoppers to buyers, which goes up when the former is converted to the latter -- than regular email marketing approaches. A number of different transactional email products are available...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

Answer: bounce email

Bounce email (sometimes referred to as bounce mail) is electronic mail that is returned to the sender because it cannot be delivered for some reason. Unless otherwise arranged, bounce email usually appears as a new note in your inbox. There are two kinds of bounce email: hard bounce and soft bounce...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

Answer: email spoofing

Email spoofing is the forgery of an email header so that the message appears to have originated from someone or somewhere other than the actual source. Distributors of spam often use spoofing in an attempt to get recipients to open, and possibly even respond to, their solicitations. Spoofing can be used legitimately...

Email marketing quiz ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

Answer: personalization

On a Web site, personalization is the process of tailoring pages to individual users' characteristics or preferences. Commonly used to enhance customer service or e-commerce sales, personalization is sometimes referred to as one-to-one marketing, because the enterprise's Web page is tailored to specifically target each individual consumer. Personalization is a means of meeting the customer's needs more effectively and efficiently...

Quote from: dwarakesh on Nov 14, 2008, 12:27 PM
Hi Acumens


      Plz  post the answer

HI ACUMEN,

THANKS FOR INVOLVEMENT

K IM UPDATING NOW.

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

The DVD Forum is an international organization made up of companies using or manufacturing digital versatile disc (DVD)-related products. The Forum, which was originally called the DVD Consortium, was created in 1995 when ten companies (Hitachi, Matsushita, Mitsubishi, Philips, Pioneer, Sony, Thomson Multimedia, Time Warner, Toshiba Corporation, and Victor) joined for the common purpose of promoting DVD worldwide and establishing standardized formats of each DVD application for the marketplace.

From ten founding members, the DVD Forum membership has grown to include some 230 companies worldwide. The Forum's activities are directed by a steering committee that is elected every second year. Separate working groups are established to define specifications, which currently include DVD-Video (this is the most familiar format), DVD-Read-Only Memory (DVD-ROM), DVD-Recordable (DVD-R), DVD-Rewritable (DVD-RW), and DVD-Audio (DVD-A). The DVD Forum issues specifications as separate books of the DVD specification, identified by letters (for example, DVD-R is laid out in Book D). A Verification Task Force (VTF) exists to define test specifications, tools, and procedures to be used and to ensure that products bearing the official DVD logo comply with all specifications.

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

The "do not call" list is a registry of phone numbers in the United States that telemarketers are prohibited from calling in most circumstances. The list is maintained by the National Do Not Call Registry of the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), and consumers can contact the agency to have their numbers registered. Organizations are prohibited from making calls to sell goods or services to any numbers listed, and are subject to substantial fines if they fail to comply.

Political organizations, charities, surveyors and companies that a consumer has a pre-existing relationship with are exempt from the restriction, although they must comply with some rules. Once your registration goes into effect (usually three months after you apply) organizations can call to ask you to take a survey or make a donation, but cannot try to sell you anything. In the case of a pre-existing relationship, a company can call you for up to 18 months after a purchase, delivery, or payment, although if you ask them not to call again they are required to honor your request. All organizations must refrain from calling anyone who asks them not to, and must maintain their own "do not call" lists of such numbers.

Consumers have responded enthusiastically to the list: the agency started registering phone numbers in late June of 2003, and by mid-August had added over 30 million numbers. For marketers, however, the list has required fundamental changes to the way they conduct business. Even in advance of the registry's implementation many marketers have turned to e-mail campaigns as a replacement for telemarketing, which has contributed to the rapid increase in the growth of spam. According to Brightmail Probe Network research, in September 2003 spam accounted for 54% of all Internet e-mail, up from 18% in April 2002. Industry experts recommend that marketers rely on opt-in e-mail rather than unsolicited commercial e-mail (UCE), and use techniques such as customer segmentation and direct e-mail marketing to send appropriate -- and possibly even welcome -- messages.

Other countries besides the United States maintain similar do not call lists. For example, the U.K. offers a Telephone Preference Service (and a Mail Preference Service for postal mail).

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

The Telecommunications Act of 1996, enacted by the U.S. Congress on February 1, 1996, and signed into law by President Bill Clinton on February 8, 1996, provided major changes in laws affecting cable TV, telecommunications, and the Internet. The law's main purpose was to stimulate competition in telecommunication services. The law specifies:

    * How local telephone carriers can compete
    * How and under what circumstances local exchange carriers (LEC) can provide long-distance services
    * The deregulation of cable TV rates

Included with the Act was the former Communications Decency Act, which, among other provisions, makes it a crime to convey pornography over the Internet in a way that is easily accessible to children.

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

RIAA

The RIAA (Recording Industry Association of America) is an organization that represents the music recording industry's intellectual property rights. The organization has taken an especially aggressive stance against Internet users who want to be able to freely copy published music. RIAA states that its mission is "to foster a business and legal climate that supports and promotes our members' creative and financial vitality." According to an RIAA estimate, its members create, manufacture, or distribute about 90% of all legally made audio recordings that are produced and sold in the United States.

A major focus of the RIAA's attention is piracy or the illegal copying and distribution of sound recordings. RIAA classifies music piracy into four (possibly overlapping) categories.

    * Pirate recordings are illegally duplicated copies of the sound portion of a lawful recording, without any duplication of the packaging.
    * Counterfeit recordings are illegally duplicated copies of the sound and its packaging, so that, for example, a counterfeit CD resembles the legitimate product.
    * Bootleg recordings are illegal recordings of live or broadcast music.
    * Online piracy is the unauthorized uploading or downloading of copyrighted recordings to or from a Web site such as Napster .

This last category is increasingly practiced, and particularly difficult to defend against, although digital rights management ( DRM ) products are being developed as one means of doing so. RIAA's recommendations for anti-piracy measures are sometimes controversial, with some people believing that they infringe on individual rights, such as the right to privacy of information. For example, many people believe that they have a right to share information from their computers, as long as the exchange is not for profit. RIAA, on the other hand, considers such sharing of copyrighted media to be theft.

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

HIPAA is the United States Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. There are two sections to the Act. HIPAA Title I deals with protecting health insurance coverage for people who lose or change jobs. HIPAA Title II includes an administrative simplification section which deals with the standardization of healthcare-related information systems. In the information technology industries, this section is what most people mean when they refer to HIPAA. HIPAA establishes mandatory regulations that require extensive changes to the way that health providers conduct business.

HIPAA seeks to establish standardized mechanisms for electronic data interchange (EDI), security, and confidentiality of all healthcare-related data. The Act mandates: standardized formats for all patient health, administrative, and financial data; unique identifiers (ID numbers) for each healthcare entity, including individuals, employers, health plans and health care providers; and security mechanisms to ensure confidentiality and data integrity for any information that identifies an individual.

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

The National Computer Security Center (NCSC) is a U.S. government organization within the National Security Agency (NSA) that evaluates computing equipment for high security applications to ensure that facilities processing classified or other sensitive material are using trusted computer systems and components. NCSC was founded in 1981 as the Department of Defense Computer Security Center and changed to its current name in 1985. The organization works with industry, education, and government agency partners to promote research and standardization efforts for secure information system development. The NCSC also functions in an educational capacity to disseminate information about issues surrounding secure computing, most significantly through its annual National Information Systems Security Conference.

The NCSC's computer evaluation program is carried out by another NSA organization, the Trusted Product Evaluation Program (TPEP), which tests commercial products against a comprehensive set of security-related criteria. NCSC issued the first Department of Defense (DoD) Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) in August, 1983. The document, more commonly referred to as the "orange book," was reissued in 1985 as a DoD standard that included the stated goals of providing manufacturers with security-related standards regarding features for inclusion in products, and providing DoD components with information about security metrics for the evaluation of trust levels to be accorded various products used for processing sensitive material.

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

Compliance is either a state of being in accordance with established guidelines, specifications, or legislation or the process of becoming so. Software, for example, may be developed in compliance with specifications created by some standards body, such as the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE), and may be distributed in compliance with the vendor's licensing agreement. In the legal system, compliance usually refers to behavior in accordance with legislation, such as the United States' Can Spam Act of 2003, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002, or HIPAA (United States Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996).

Compliance in a regulatory context is a prevalent business concern, perhaps because of an ever-increasing number of regulations and a fairly widespread lack of understanding about what is required for a company to be in compliance with new legislation. In the financial sector, SOX was enacted in response to the high-profile Enron and WorldCom financial Removed to protect shareholders and the general public from accounting errors and fraudulent practices in the enterprise. In the healthcare sector, HIPAA Title II includes an administrative simplification section which mandates standardization of healthcare-related information systems.

As compliance has increasingly become a concern of corporate management, corporations are turning to specialized software, consultancies, and even a new job title, the Chief Compliance Officer (CCO)

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

The Can Spam Act of 2003 is a commonly used name for the United States Federal law more formally known as S. 877 or the "Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act of 2003." The law took effect on January 1, 2004. The Can Spam Act allows courts to set damages of up to $2 million when spammers break the law. Federal district courts are allowed to send spammers to jail and/or triple the damages if the violation is found to be willful.

The Can Spam Act requires that businesses:

      - Clearly label commercial e-mail as advertising
      - Use a truthful and relevant subject line
      - Use a legitimate return e-mail address
      - Provide a valid physical address
      - Provide a working opt-out option
      - Process opt-out requests within ten business days

Critics of the Can Spam Act warn it will be next to impossible to enforce the legislation because spam is an international problem and the US government will not be able to impose punishment on law-breakers outside its own jurisdiction. Proponents maintain that stiff monetary penalties will eventually createa financial disincentive for spam and the new law is a step in the right direction, especially if followed up with a national "do not spam" list. The Direct Marketing Association (DMA), the Association of National Advertisers (ANA) and the American Association of Advertising Agencies (AAAA) have applauded the legislation. Those without ties to marketing and advertising, on the other hand, are generally less enthusiastic about the Act, because as is, it legitimizes the sending of unsolicited bulk e-mail (UBE). Some media pundits have made pointed references to an unintended second meaning for "Can Spam" as in "You CAN spam, as long as you follow these rules."

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (often shortened to SOX) is legislation enacted in response to the high-profile Enron and WorldCom financial Removed to protect shareholders and the general public from accounting errors and fraudulent practices in the enterprise. The act is administered by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), which sets deadlines for compliance and publishes rules on requirements. Sarbanes-Oxley is not a set of business practices and does not specify how a business should store records; rather, it defines which records are to be stored and for how long. The legislation not only affects the financial side of corporations, but also affects the IT departments whose job it is to store a corporation's electronic records. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act states that all business records, including electronic records and electronic messages, must be saved for "not less than five years." The consequences for non-compliance are fines, imprisonment, or both. IT departments are increasingly faced with the challenge of creating and maintaining a corporate records archive in a cost-effective fashion that satisfies the requirements put forth by the legislation.

The following sections of Sarbanes-Oxley contain the three rules that affect the management of electronic records. The first rule deals with destruction, alteration, or falsification of records.

    Sec. 802(a) "Whoever knowingly alters, destroys, mutilates, conceals, covers up, falsifies, or makes a false entry in any record, document, or tangible object with the intent to impede, obstruct, or influence the investigation or proper administration of any matter within the jurisdiction of any department or agency of the United States or any case filed under title 11, or in relation to or contemplation of any such matter or case, shall be fined under this title, imprisoned not more than 20 years, or both."

The second rule defines the retention period for records storage. Best practices indicate that corporations securely store all business records using the same guidelines set for public accountants.

    Sec. 802(a)(1) "Any accountant who conducts an audit of an issuer of securities to which section 10A(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C 78j-1(a)) applies, shall maintain all audit or review workpapers for a period of 5 years from the end of the fiscal period in which the audit or review was concluded."

This third rule refers to the type of business records that need to be stored, including all business records and communications, including electronic communications.

    Sec. 802(a)(2) "The Securities and Exchange Commission shall promulgate, within 180 days, such rules and regulations, as are reasonably necessary, relating to the retention of relevant records such as workpapers, documents that form the basis of an audit or review, memoranda, correspondence, communications, other documents, and records (including electronic records) which are created, sent, or received in connection with an audit or review and contain conclusions, opinions, analyses, or financial data relating to such an audit or review."

Quiz: Compliance ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

A Chief Compliance Officer (CCO) is a corporate official in charge of overseeing and managing compliance issues within an organization, ensuring, for example, that a company is complying with regulatory requirements, and that the company and its employees are complying with internal policies and procedures. CCO is one of a growing number of fairly new corporate titles including CEO, CFO, CIO, CTO, and CSO.

Corporations have become concerned about compliance because of increasingly stringent legal requirements. In the wake of the Enron and WorldCom accounting Removed, the United States federal government has passed legislation to guard against corporate fraud. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, for example, stipulates how corporations must report their financial results, and makes executives responsible for accounting irregularities.

CCO is sometimes said to stand for Corporate Compliance Officer.

hi sankarakrishnan,

did u went through the updation made??

thanks for ur involvement in gaining knowledge

quiz :BUSINESS INTELLIGENCE
                                     I personally feel this quiz topic ,it is essential & can read by everyone and must read one.

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

In negotiations, always have a partner. Never work alone.

True Explain that there is another party, who isn't present, that you need to consult with. The party can be real or imaginary. Their existence not only helps buy you time and prevent rash decisions, it also opens the door for counter offers.

Quote from: sankarakrishnan on Nov 14, 2008, 04:05 PM
Thanks for your intelligence post..but make it as order...it may confusing some times

hi sankarakrishnan,

thank u for ur involvement...k i definitely make it as order ...i like to know which order sequence u want?? and also check my updation.

keep reading/searching...and gain knowledge.

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

True. Many agreements have been struck just because one side is worn out and can't stand the thought of going through the process again with another party.

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

If you think you won, you did. On the other hand, if you think you were cheated, you did get cheated. Before beginning negotiations you should ask yourself two questions: "What is my best-case scenario? What is the least I'm willing to settle for?" The area in between is called your settlement range. If you can reach an agreement within your settlement range, it's a win!

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

False. Many managers make the mistake of thinking the vendor is a partner and will often give them information about budgets and products. Our expert says don't do it -- you're simply handing the vendor all your negotiating leverage.

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

a. Accept that negotiations have been re-opened and go from there.

When you're deep into negotiations, it's easy to lose your patience. If something unforseen happens at the last minute, don't give up and walk away. Keep talking and look for a workable alternative

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

In negotiation, winner's curse is an offer that is immediately accepted by the other party. The term implies that although the offer was accepted, the person making the offer failed to get as good a deal as possible.

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

The tipping point is the critical point in an evolving situation that leads to a new and irreversible development. The term is said to have originated in the field of epidemiology when an infectious disease reaches a point beyond any local ability to control it from spreading more widely. A tipping point is often considered to be a turning point.

The term is now used in many fields. Journalists apply it to social phenomena, demographic data, and almost any change that is likely to lead to additional consequences. Marketers see it as a threshold that, once reached, will result in additional sales. In some usage, a tipping point is simply an addition or increment that in itself might not seem extraordinary but that unexpectedly is just the amount of additional change that will lead to a big effect. In the butterfly effect of chaos theory, for example, the small flap of the butterfly's wings that in time leads to unexpected and unpredictable results could be considered a tipping point. However, more often, the effects of reaching a tipping point are more immediately evident. A tipping point may simply occur because a critical mass has been reached.

Things that have been said to be about to reach a tipping point include: society's willingness to tolerate gay marriage, RFID technology in retail sales, and the widespread adoption of Web services.

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

In purchasing, bundling is the practice of marketing two or more products or services in a single package with one price.

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

Boulwarism

In negotiation, a Boulwarism is an offer or counter-offer that is not meant to be negotiated. This "take it or leave it" strategy is named after Lemuel Boulware, a former vice president of General Electric. When faced with a strike, Boulware is famous for telling the International Union of Electrical Workers (IUE) at the onset of negotiations that the company had already evaluated the workers' needs and was putting forth its "first, last and best offer" on the table.

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

reciprocity

In negotiation, reciprocity is a mutual or cooperative exchange of favors or privileges. It is exemplified by the American expression "You scratch my back, and I'll scratch yours" and the Latin expression "Quid pro quo" (meaning something for something).

quiz:Business Intelligence ANSWER KEY

ANSWER KEY

1.)c. permission marketing

2.) e. personalization

3.) d. CRM analytics

4.) d. business intelligence

5.) a. database marketing

6.) c. hosted CRM

7.) b. BPML

8.) a. contact center

9.) d. customer segmentation

10.) e. predictive modeling

"be good do good"

"normally "- casual/usual

teeth

day shift or night shift which is cool to work

compassionate- kindhearted

hi acumens,

is anybody there to share with me about ur dream company...

im waiting for u.

thanks in advance.

life is short & sweet so enjoy it

HI ACUMENS,

NO we dont want to finalize & lock this topic.

V R BACK...

can anyone tell the meaning of soombal.........[this is a tamil word]

PEACEFUL LIFE-HOME/CHENNAI

"IM TOO PROUD TO BE AN INDIAN"
In India, Children's Day is celebrated on November 14. This date marks the birth anniversary of independent India's first Prime Minister, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru as he was very fond of children.

so im proud to say that im INDIAN.

"HAPPY CHILDREN'S DAY"

metropolitan city - CHENNAI

Quiz: Test your regulatory compliance smarts

Are you up on regulatory compliance? Test your knowledge with these regulations and see if you can match up each regulationin the top with the correct requirements in the bottom of the page.

a. Outlines criteria for accepting electronic records and signatures and for documenting and validating authorized change processes to systems and software involved in the creation of electronic documents

b. Assures privacy of customer data for financial institutions

c. Requires that where patient data is recorded, stored or transmitted there must be a record of the change and patient's signature

d. Establishes controls and procedures for electronic securities transactions

e. Provides direction for managing capital risk, supervisory interaction, and publish risk disclosure for large banks

f. Provides guidelines for corporate governance and oversight of accounting and audit practices as well as financial record retention

g. Regulates firms providing IT products and services to the U.S. government


1. HIPAA   
2. FDA21 CFR 11   
3. SEC17 CFR 240   
4. Sarbanes-Oxley   
5. Basel II   
6. Gramm-Leach-Bliley   
7. Clinger-Cohen Act   

Compliance II: The letter of the law

Do you speak geek: Respecting the letter of the law

1.) What governing body oversees and enforces HIPAA compliance?
Answer

2.) Which constitutional amendment have you violated if evidence seized by your organization's honeynet has been declared inadmissible in a criminal trial?
Answer

3.) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act consists of three sections. What section stipulates that financial institutions must implement security programs to protect financial information?
Answer

4.) What is another name for the Financial Modernization Act of 1999?
Answer

5.) What law stipulates that if there's a security breach of a database containing personal data, the responsible organization must notify each resident for whom it maintained information?
Answer

6.) What loosely-defined law was originally conceived to prosecute hackers and spammers?
Answer

7.) What law establishes benchmarks used to measure compliance?
Answer

8.) What statute allows consumers to find out how their personal information was compromised and for what purpose, thereby requiring companies to provide details of a security breach?
Answer

9.) What law consists of two sections, of which IT practitioners are primarily concerned with Title II?
Answer

10.) What law allows courts to set damages of up to $2 million when senders of unsolicited bulk e-mail break the law?
Answer

Quiz: Compliance


1. This job title describes a corporate official in charge of overseeing and managing compliance issues within an organization.
What is it?


2. This is legislation enacted in response to the high-profile Enron and WorldCom financial Removed to protect shareholders and the general public from accounting errors and fraudulent practices in the enterprise.
What is it?


3. This is legislation enacted in the United States that places restrictions on unsolicited bulk mail (UBE), such as requiring valid sender contact information and opt-out mechanisms.
What is it?


4. This is a state of accordance with established standards, specifications, or legislation.
What is it?


5. This is a U.S. government organization within the National Security Agency (NSA) that evaluates computing equipment for high security applications to ensure that facilities processing classified or other sensitive material are using trusted computer systems and components.
What is it?


6. This is legislation with two sections: Title I deals with protecting health insurance coverage for people who lose or change jobs; Title II includes an administrative simplification section which deals with the standardization of healthcare-related information systems (IT industry references are usually about HIPPA Title II).
What is it?


7. This is an organization that represents the music recording industry's intellectual property rights.
What is it?


8. This is legislation designed to stimulate competition that specifies: how local telephone carriers can compete; how and under what circumstances local exchange carriers (LEC) can provide long-distance services; and the deregulation of cable TV rates.
What is it?


9. This is a registry of phone numbers in the United States that telemarketers are prohibited from calling in most circumstances.
What is it?


10. This is an international organization made up of companies using or manufacturing DVD-related products.
What is it?

Quiz: Negotiating -- Do you speak business?

Find out how much you know about the language of negotiation.

1. This is a "you scratch my back and I'll scratch yours" approach to negotiation. What is it?
Answer

2. What is a Boulwarism?
a. a deal that takes forever to close
b. a non-negotiable offer
c. a conditional agreement
Answer

3. This is the negotiation of two or more products or services in a single package with one price. What is it?
Answer

4. This describes a critical point in a negotiation that causes a deal to fall through. It is the proverbial "straw that broke the camel's back." What is it?
Answer

5. What do you call an offer that is immediately accepted by the other party?
a. winner's curse
b. consensus gentium
c. smooth transaction
Answer

6. You just finished negotiating a deal for new printers when the salesperson "reminds" you that the agreed-upon purchase price does not include shipping. You thought that shipping was included in the price and seem to recall telling the salesperson that your company's policy is never to pay shipping as a separate cost. What should you do?
a. Accept that negotiations have been re-opened. Deal with it.
b.Walk away from the deal. They're trying to take advantage -- and if they do it once, they'll do it again.
Answer

7. True or false: When dealing with a vendor, think of him as your partner. The more information you can give him, the more he can help you.
Answer

8. When all is said and done, you didn't get everything that you wanted, but neither did the other side. Did you win?
Answer

9. True or false: Brilliant negotiators are patient. Sometimes all you have to do is wait till the other side gives in.
Answer

10. True or false: Always have a partner when negotiating -- it's not a good idea to go it alone.
Answer

Quiz: Business Intelligence

1. This is an approach to selling goods and services in which a prospect explicitly agrees in advance to receive marketing information.
a. customer managed relationship
b. data mining
c. permission marketing
d. one-to-one marketing
e. batch processing

2. In an Internet context, this is the practice of tailoring Web pages to individual users' characteristics or preferences.
a. Web services
b. customer-facing
c. client/server
d. customer valuation
e. personalization

3. This is the processing of data about customers and their relationship with the enterprise in order to improve the enterprise's future sales and service and lower cost.
a. clickstream analysis
b. database marketing
c. customer relationship management
d. CRM analytics
e. B2C

4. This is a broad category of applications and technologies for gathering, storing, analyzing, and providing access to data to help enterprise users make better business decisions.
a. best practice
b. data mart
c. business information warehouse
d. business intelligence
e. business warehouse

5. This is a systematic approach to the gathering, consolidation, and processing of consumer data (both for customers and potential customers) that is maintained in a company's databases.
a. database marketing
b. marketing encyclopedia
c. application integration
d. service oriented integration
e. business technology management

6. This is an arrangement in which a company outsources some or all of its customer relationship management functions to an application service provider (ASP).
a. spend management
b. supplier relationship management
c. hosted CRM
d. Customer Information Control System
e. online transaction processing

7. This is an XML-based metalanguage developed by the Business Process Management Initiative (BPMI) as a means of modeling business processes, much as XML is, itself, a metalanguage with the ability to model enterprise data.
a. BizTalk
b. BPML
c. e-biz
d. ebXML
e. ECB

8. This is a central point in an enterprise from which all customer contacts are managed.
a. contact center
b. help system
c. multichannel marketing
d. call center
e. help desk

9. This is the practice of dividing a customer base into groups of individuals that are similar in specific ways relevant to marketing, such as age, gender, interests, spending habits, and so on.
a. customer service chat
b. customer managed relationship
c. customer life cycle
d. customer segmentation
e. change management

10. In data mining, this is a technique used to predict future behavior and anticipate the consequences of change.
a. predictive technology
b. disaster recovery
c. phase change
d. Digital Silhouettes
e. predictive modeling

Quiz: Writing for business

1. Which one is correct?
a. The government approved a program that will give iPods to disadvantaged children.
b. The government approved a program which will give iPods to disadvantaged children.
Answer

2. Which one is correct?
a. Bacon and eggs are Bill Gates' favorite breakfast.
b. Bacon and eggs is Bill Gates' favorite breakfast.
Answer

3. Which one is correct?
The spyware infestation had a startling ________ on network performance.
a. affect
b. effect
Answer

4. Which one is correct?
Poor network performance ___________ everyone's work.
a. affected
b. effected
Answer

5. Which one is correct?
a. The next topic he addressed was the many instances of identity theft.
b. The next topic he addressed were the many instances of identity theft.
Answer

6. Which one is correct?
a. The recent divestiture, combined with rising costs, are expected to affect profits.
b. The recent divestiture, combined with rising costs, is expected to affect profits.
Answer

7. Which one is correct?
a. While answering the e-mail, the phone rang and interrupted me.
b. While answering the e-mail, I was interrupted by the phone ringing.
Answer

8. Which one is correct?
a. Unlike spam or spyware, spim is not under investigation by the federal government.
b. Unlike spam or spyware, the federal government is not investigating spim.
Answer

9. Which sentence is preferable?
a. "I'm not going to stand for it," Carly said.
b. "I'm not going to stand for it," fumed Carly.
Answer

10. Which sentence is preferable?
a. This issue was decided by the committee.
b. The committee decided this issue.
Answer

Quiz: Spam, Spam and More Spam

1. A Russian gang of spammers are using SpamThru to engineer a tidal wave of junk mail across the globe. What classification of malware is SpamThru?
a. Trojan horse
b. click fraud
c. A & B

2. SpamThru hijacks unprotected PCs and turns them into spam relays. Another name for a spam relay is _______________________.
a. spambot
b. zombie
c. A & B

3. Spam relays work as kind of peer-to-peer network, all reporting to one central computer. The central computer is called a __________________.
a. controller
b. android
c. A & B

4. What is Spamhaus?
a. An Internet service provider that doesn't care if their members distribute spam.
b. An organization dedicated to stemming the distribution of spam
c. A & B

5. If a spammer gets caught, the individual may, as an act of revenge, sends out huge volumes of spam that appear to be from the person who reported him. What's this form of attack called?
a. distributed denial-of-service attack
b. Joe job
c. A & B

6. According to Vincent Weafer (Symantec), spambots are doing real-time ______ look-ups so their mailings aren't getting bounced as often.
a. ISP
b. DNS
c. A & B

7. This is a computer server that is set up to be intentionally slow as a trap for spammers using address harvesting programs.
a. teergrube
b. IP spoofer
c. A & B

8. True or false: Most spammers just want you to buy something.
Answer

9. To bypass email security systems that use optical character recognition, spammers use ________ in their messages.
a. image spam
b. spam cocktails
c. A & B

10. What technique describes the alteration of an e-mail header to make it look like the message came from just about anyone, including someone you might know?
a. munging
b. e-mail spoofing

Exchange Geek-o-Meter

How do you measure up on our Exchange geek-o-meter?

1. Hot girl or viral worm?
This is a viral worm that uses the lore of a beautiful woman to infect Windows systems. When a user unwittingly opens an e-mail note with an attachment that appears to be a graphic image of a certain babe, the worm copies itself to the Windows directory and then sends the file as an attachment to all addresses in your address book.
What is it?

2. Hello operator?
This is Microsoft's trademarked directory service, an integral part of the Windows 2000 architecture. It is a centralized and standardized system that automates network management of user data, security, and distributed resources, and enables interoperation with other directories.
What is it?

3. It swings both ways
A programmer may sometimes install this so that the program can be accessed for troubleshooting or other purposes. However, attackers often use these that they detect or install themselves, as part of an exploit.
What is it?

4. Picking up the pieces
This is the process of locating the noncontiguous fragments of data into which a computer file may be divided as it is stored on a hard disk, and rearranging the fragments and restoring them into fewer fragments or into the whole file.
What is it?

5. It's hunting season!
This was the first computer virus known to have spread in the wild. Richard Skrenta, then fifteen years old, wrote the virus for the Apple II operating system, which was stored on floppy diskettes.
What is it?

6. "Oh Gee, oh shucks..."
This e-mail service gives you plenty of storage, but also parses users' messages to determine advertising matches and will occasionally insert appropriate ads in e-mail messages.
What is it?

7. Unknowing accomplice
This is an SMTP e-mail server that allows third-party relay of e-mail messages. By processing mail that is neither for nor from a local user, this makes it possible for an unscrupulous sender to route large volumes of spam.
What is it?

8. Don't e-mail without it
This is a Microsoft Windows program interface that enables you to send e-mail from within a Windows application and attach the document you are working on to the e-mail note.
What is it?

9. IM spam
According to a report from Ferris Research, 500 million IM spam messages were sent in 2003, twice the level of 2002. As it becomes more prevalent, it could impact the business community similarly to the way that spam e-mail does now, by consuming corporate resources and creating security problems. Think you know the term for IM spam?
What is it?

10. Hello? Is anyone there?
This is a term used for a set of facilities for managing the delivery of voice information using the Internet Protocol. In general, this means sending voice information in digital form in discrete packets rather than in the traditional circuit-committed protocols of the public switched telephone network.
What is it?

quiz:Email Security

1. What is a secure method of sending e-mail that uses the RSA encryption system?
Answer

2. What is e-mail that has been directed to a recipient through a third-party server that does not identify the originator of the message?
Answer

3. What do you call a program used to detect unsolicited and unwanted e-mail and prevents those messages from getting to a user's inbox?
Answer

4. What is the name for Microsoft's proposed e-mail sender authentication protocol designed to protect against domain spoofing and phishing exploits?
Answer

5. What document must end-users agree to follow in order to be provided with access to a network and its applications, including e-mail?
Answer

6. What type of scam involves the sending of legitimate-looking e-mails appearing to come from some of the Web's biggest sites in an effort to gather personal and financial information from the recipient?
Answer

7. What is the term for an attempt to determine the valid e-mail addresses associated with an e-mail server so that they can be added to a spam database?
Answer

8. What protocol ensures privacy between communicating applications and their users on the Internet?
Answer

9. What term describes the forgery of an e-mail header so that the message appears to have originated from someone or somewhere other than the actual source?
Answer

10. What is the name for a program or programming code that replicates by being copied or initiating its copying to another program, computer boot sector or document?

Email marketing quiz

Take the quiz:

1. This is a technique used by legitimate marketers to customize email offerings for specific customers.

Read the answer about marketing technique

2. Used by spammers to make recipients think an email message came from someone other than them, this technique might convince a user that a spam email came from someone they'd actually like to hear from.

Read the answer on spam email

3. This is the term for an email message returned to the sender by the recipient's server as undeliverable, often because the email is -- rightly or wrongly -- determined to be spam.

Read the answer on returned emails

4. A type of Web-based marketing, this type of email allows recipients to buy goods and services directly from an email message, without being redirected to the retailer's Web site.

Read the answer on email purchases

5. This self-explanatory term is a more formal way of saying "spam."

Read the answer on spam email

6. This is a term for the number of times that users click on links in a message or on a Web site -- it's much higher for legitimate marketing emails than for spam.

Read the answer on email links

7. This is a program used to detect unwanted messages. A frequent problem is that they may also prevent delivery of some legitimate email marketing messages.

Read the answer on email programs

8. In this type of email campaign, advertisements are sent to targeted groups of customers.

Read the answer on email campaigns

9. Also known as permission-based email, this is one proposed requirement for marketers that could greatly decrease the amount of spam.

Read the answer on permission-based emails

10. Never used by legitimate marketers, this is a type of program that a spammer uses to troll the Internet seeking email addresses.

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quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) is an older authentication protocol common to Unix networks that allows a remote access server to forward a user's logon password to an authentication server to determine whether access can be allowed to a given system. TACACS is an encryption protocol and therefore less secure than the later TACACS+ and Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service protocols. A later version of TACACS is XTACACS (Extended TACACS). Both are described in Request for Comments 1492.

In spite of its name, TACACS+ is an entirely new protocol. TACACS+ and RADIUS have generally replaced the earlier protocols in more recently built or updated networks. TACACS+ uses the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and RADIUS uses the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). Some administrators recommend using TACACS+ because TCP is seen as a more reliable protocol. Whereas RADIUS combines authentication and authorization in a user profile, TACACS+ separates the two operations.

TACACS and XTACACS are still running on many older systems.

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

An access control list (ACL) is a table that tells a computer operating system which access rights each user has to a particular system object, such as a file directory or individual file. Each object has a security attribute that identifies its access control list. The list has an entry for each system user with access privileges. The most common privileges include the ability to read a file (or all the files in a directory), to write to the file or files, and to execute the file (if it is an executable file, or program). Microsoft Windows NT/2000, Novell's NetWare, Digital's OpenVMS, and Unix-based systems are among the operating systems that use access control lists. The list is implemented differently by each operating system.

In Windows NT/2000, an access control list (ACL) is associated with each system object. Each ACL has one or more access control entries (ACEs) consisting of the name of a user or group of users. The user can also be a role name, such as "programmer," or "tester." For each of these users, groups, or roles, the access privileges are stated in a string of bits called an access mask. Generally, the system administrator or the object owner creates the access control list for an object.

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

In a telecommunications network, a switch is a device that channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to the specific output port that will take the data toward its intended destination. In the traditional circuit-switched telephone network, one or more switches are used to set up a dedicated though temporary connection or circuit for an exchange between two or more parties. On an Ethernet local area network (LAN), a switch determines from the physical device (Media Access Control or MAC) address in each incoming message frame which output port to forward it to and out of. In a wide area packet-switched network such as the Internet, a switch determines from the IP address in each packet which output port to use for the next part of its trip to the intended destination.

In the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) communications model, a switch performs the layer 2 or Data-Link layer function. That is, it simply looks at each packet or data unit and determines from a physical address (the "MAC address") which device a data unit is intended for and switches it out toward that device. However, in wide area networks such as the Internet, the destination address requires a look-up in a routing table by a device known as a router. Some newer switches also perform routing functions (layer 3 or the Network layer functions in OSI) and are sometimes called IP switches.

On larger networks, the trip from one switch point to another in the network is called a hop. The time a switch takes to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its latency. The price paid for having the flexibility that switches provide in a network is this latency. Switches are found at the backbone and gateway levels of a network where one network connects with another and at the subnetwork level where data is being forwarded close to its destination or origin. The former are often known as core switches and the latter as desktop switches.

In the simplest networks, a switch is not required for messages that are sent and received within the network. For example, a local area network may be organized in a Token Ring or bus arrangement in which each possible destination inspects each message and reads any message with its address.
Circuit-Switching version Packet-Switching
A network's paths can be used exclusively for a certain duration by two or more parties and then switched for use to another set of parties. This type of "switching" is known as circuit-switching and is really a dedicated and continuously connected path for its duration. Today, an ordinary voice phone call generally uses circuit-switching.

Most data today is sent, using digital signals, over networks that use packet-switching. Using packet-switching, all network users can share the same paths at the same time and the particular route a data unit travels can be varied as conditions change. In packet-switching, a message is divided into packets, which are units of a certain number of bytes. The network addresses of the sender and of the destination are added to the packet. Each network point looks at the packet to see where to send it next. Packets in the same message may travel different routes and may not arrive in the same order that they were sent. At the destination, the packets in a message are collected and reassembled into the original message.

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert (CCIE) is what Cisco describes as its "premium networking certification." The CCIE is widely regarded as having one of the toughest, most demanding exams. It includes both a written exam and a day-long lab exam. This certification is aimed at senior level networking professionals who design, build, implement, maintain, or troubleshoot complex enterprise networking infrastructures. CCIE recipients can specialize in routing and switching, communications and services, security, or voice systems and technologies.

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) is a routing protocol that allows host computers on the Internet to use multiple routers that act as a single virtual router, maintaining connectivity even if the first hop router fails, because other routers are on "hot standby" - ready to go. Configured on Cisco routers running the Internet Protocol (IP) over Ethernet, Fiber Distributed-Data Interface (FDDI), and Token Ring local area networks (LANs), HSRP provides automatic router backup. The protocol is fully compatible with Novell's Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX), AppleTalk, and Banyan VINES, and (in some configurations) with Xerox Network Systems (XNS) and DECnet.

Developed by Cisco and specified in IETF Request for Comments (RFC) 2281, HSRP ensures that only a single router (called the active router) is forwarding packets on behalf of the virtual router at any given time. A standby router is chosen to be ready to become the active router, in the event that the current active router fails. HSRP defines a mechanism used to determine active and standby routers by referring to their IP addresses. Once these are determined, the failure of an active router will not cause any significant interruption of connectivity.

On any given LAN, there may be multiple, possibly overlapping, hot standby groups, each with a single Media Access Control (Mac) address and IP address; the IP address should belong to the primary subnet, but must be different from any actual or virtual addresses allocated to any routers or hosts on the network.

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

A core router is a router that forwards packets to computer hosts within a network (but not between networks). A core router is sometimes contrasted with an edge router, which routes packets between a self-contained network and other outside networks along a network backbone.

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

An mrouter, or multicast router, is a router program that distinguishes between multicast and unicast packets and determines how they should be distributed along the Multicast Internet (sometimes known as the Multicast Backbone or MBone). Using an appropriate algorithm, an mrouter tells a switching device what to do with the multicast packet.

Mrouters currently make up "islands" on the MBone separated by unicast routers. Thus, an mrouter can disguise multicast packets so that they can cross unicast routers. This is done by making each multicast packet look like a unicast packet; the destination address is the next mrouter. This process is called IP tunneling.

There are two multicast routing protocols that mrouters use to distribute multicast packets. They are dense-mode routing and sparse-mode routing. The protocol used is determined by available bandwidth and the distribution of end users over the network. If the network has many end users and there is enough bandwidth, dense-mode routing is used. However, if bandwidth is limited and users are thinly distributed, sparse-mode routing is used.

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

A term used in asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) networks, an edge router is a device that routes data packets between one or more local area networks (LANs) and an ATM backbone network, whether a campus network or a wide area network (WAN). An edge router is an example of an edge device and is sometimes referred to as a boundary router. An edge router is sometimes contrasted with a core router, which forwards packets to computer hosts within a network (but not between networks).

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

Layer 3 refers to the Network layer of the commonly-referenced multilayered communication model, Open Systems Interconnection (OSI). The Network layer is concerned with knowing the address of the neighboring nodes in the network, selecting routes and quality of service, and recognizing and forwarding to the Transport layer incoming messages for local host domains.

A router is a layer 3 device, although some newer switches also perform layer 3 functions. The Internet Protocol (IP) address is a layer 3 address.

quiz:Do you speak 'router' geek? ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

A brouter (pronounced BRAU-tuhr or sometimes BEE-rau-tuhr) is a network bridge and a router combined in a single product. A bridge is a device that connects one local area network (LAN) to another local area network that uses the same protocol (for example, Ethernet or Token Ring). If a data unit on one LAN is intended for a destination on an interconnected LAN, the bridge forwards the data unit to that LAN; otherwise, it passes it along on the same LAN. A bridge usually offers only one path to a given interconnected LAN. A router connects a network to one or more other networks that are usually part of a wide area network (WAN) and may offer a number of paths out to destinations on those networks. A router therefore needs to have more information than a bridge about the interconnected networks. It consults a routing table for this information. Since a given outgoing data unit or packet from a computer may be intended for an address on the local network, on an interconnected LAN, or the wide area network, it makes sense to have a single unit that examines all data units and forwards them appropriately.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 10

In computer and telephone use, chucking is the process of discarding a small piece of hardware by violent means, such as hurling it out a window, against a wall, or into a body of water. The term can also apply to devices tossed into active fireplaces, camp fires, or brush fires. Any type of hardware can be chucked, but this solution is employed most often in cases where a cell phone user, disgusted with poor performance or inadequate coverage, comes for a brief moment to the conclusion that the device is the bane of life. A person who chucks a piece of hardware is called a chucker.

Chucking can be an expensive practice if it becomes habitual. A few vendors will honor the warranty of a chucked item if the warranty is still in force, but such benevolence is rare. A word of warning for chuckers: some cell phone batteries contain hazardous materials that require special treatment when disposed of, and some components can explode if incinerated.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 9

Computer forensics, also called cyberforensics, is the application of computer investigation and analysis techniques to gather evidence suitable for presentation in a court of law. The goal of computer forensics is to perform a structured investigation while maintaining a documented chain of evidence to find out exactly what happened on a computer and who was responsible for it.

Forensic investigators typically follow a standard set of procedures: After physically isolating the computer in question to make sure it cannot be accidentally contaminated, investigators make a digital copy of the hard drive. Once the original hard drive has been copied, it is locked in a safe or other secure storage facility to maintain its pristine condition. All investigation is done on the digital copy.

Investigators use a variety of techniques and proprietary forensic applications to examine the hard drive copy, searching hidden folders and unallocated disk space for copies of deleted, encrypted, or damaged files. Any evidence found on the digital copy is carefully documented in a "finding report" and verified with the original in preparation for legal proceedings that involve discovery, depositions, or actual litigation.

Computer forensics has become its own area of scientific expertise, with accompanying coursework and certification.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 8

Dumpster diving is looking for treasure in someone else's trash. (A dumpster is a large trash container.) In the world of information technology, dumpster diving is a technique used to retrieve information that could be used to carry out an attack on a computer network. Dumpster diving isn't limited to searching through the trash for obvious treasures like access codes or passwords written down on sticky notes. Seemingly innocent information like a phone list, calendar, or organizational chart can be used to assist an attacker using social engineering techniques to gain access to the network. To prevent dumpster divers from learning anything valuable from your trash, experts recommend that your company establish a disposal policy where all paper, including print-outs, is shredded in a cross-cut shredder before being recycled, all storage media is erased, and all staff is educated about the danger of untracked trash.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 7

refurbish

Refurbish, in everyday language, is "to renew or to restore to a new condition and/or appearance". In the computer world, refurbished equipment is not necessarily defective in any way; it may just be "old" (a relative term in the world of computers). When hardware is refurbished, the components are examined and non-working parts are replaced.

Companies that lease computers may use refurbishing as a means of dealing with units that are returning from long-term leases; after the computers are refurbished, they may be sold at a reduced price or donated to charity - either of which is good for business. Corporations may buy refurbished computers and hardware for a number of reasons. Refurbished hardware costs less than new hardware, which makes it possible for small businesses to make the move to computerized operations for the first time or for businesses with limited means to buy higher quality computers for less money. Another reason for a corporation to buy refurbished equipment is to maintain corporate standards by ensuring that all employees have the same equipment, even when the model being used is not being sold any longer.

There are additional reasons for choosing refurbished hardware if a company is already computerized. For example, there may be a corporate plan to use desktop computers for three years before upgrading to newer ones. In the latter part of the three-year period, equipment purchases may be needed for new staff or to replace a component that no longer works. Since the corporation intends to replace all desktop computers in the near future, the purchasing department may not want to pay full price for any new equipment at the end of this three-year period. Refurbished computers provide a cost-effective alternative.

A number of organizations, such as StRUT (Students Recycling Used Technology), the National Cristina Foundation, and the Resource Area for Teachers (RAFT) collect and refurbish donated computer equipment for redistribution to schools and charities around the world.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 5

E-waste is any refuse created by discarded electronic devices and components as well as substances involved in their manufacture or use. The disposal of electronics is a growing problem because electronic equipment frequently contains hazardous substances. In a personal computer, for example, there may be lead in the cathode ray tube (CRT) and soldering compound, mercury in switches and housing, and cobalt in steel components, among other equally toxic substances. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), more than four million tons of e-waste go to U.S. landfills each year.

Around the world, a number of initiatives have arisen to address the issue of e-waste, by promoting the reuse of electronic devices (e-cycling) and mandating that safer alternatives to hazardous substances be used in their manufacture whenever possible. In Europe, legislation has been drafted to deal with the problem, including the Waste from Electrical and Electronic Equipment (WEEE) Directive and the Basel Convention. In the United States, initiatives have mostly come from the private sector, such as eBay's Rethink project.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 4

A hard drive shredder is a mechanical device that physically destroys old hard drives in such a way that the data they contain cannot be recovered. At a minimum, this involves severing every track on every platter in a drive.

The data bits on a hard drive are not destroyed by formatting, or even by overwriting several times with other data. Specialized programs called hard drive shredding utilities overwrite data many times with "gibberish," but some engineers claim that the original data may be recoverable by a determined expert even after this process unless overwriting has taken place hundreds of times. Drilling holes in an old hard drive will not necessarily work, because some tracks are likely to remain unsevered unless hundreds of holes are drilled.

The most effective way to ensure complete data destruction on a defunct hard drive is to pulverize the assembly, in much the same way as a wood chipper disposes of tree limbs and brush. Environmental precautions must be taken when this is done, because the resulting particles can be toxic. Several companies offer hard drive shredding services for a fee, including secure pickup and transport, compliance with environmental regulations, and certification of data destruction. For the enterprise concerned about data theft, such a vendor may offer the best solution to the data destruction problem.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 3

1) A format (noun, pronounced FOHR-mat) is a preestablished layout for data. A computer program accepts data as input in a certain format, processes it, and provides it as output in the same or another format. All data is stored in some format with the expectation that it will be processed by a program that knows how to handle that format. Generically, data formats tend to fall into bitmaps (strings of 0s and 1s) that describe images or sound patterns (or both), text formats (in which usually each byte value is mapped to a character), and numeric data formats (used by spreadsheet and other database programs).

A hard disk or other storage device is also said to be formatted when its space has been organized and divided into pieces that can be controlled for convenient storage and access. For example, a hard disk may be formatted into areas called sectors, tracks, and clusters.

2) To format (verb) a document or file for printing or displaying is to add the necessary information to it so that the output device will know how to present the output.

3) To format (verb) a hard disk or diskette is to set up the space divisions on the medium and initiate a space allocation table that will know exactly how to reach each bit of data that may be stored there later.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 2

In e-cycling, a hard drive overwriter is a program or utility that repeatedly overwrites the data on a computer's hard drive with gibberish. Once data is saved to a hard drive, it's surprisingly persistent. Simply deleting files makes them more difficult to access, but doesn't actually get rid of them. The data remains in the hard drive until it is overwritten. By overwriting the entire hard drive with gibberish, the user ensures that their information remains inaccessible no matter where the computer might eventually wind up. There are a number of products that overwrite hard drive data, including Norton's WipeInfo, OnTrack's DataEraser and Jetico's BCWipe.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

ANSWER FOR 1

E-cycling is the practice of reusing, or distributing for reuse, electronic equipment and components rather than discarding them at the end of their life cycle. According to Gartner Group research, over four million computers will be replaced, worldwide, between 2004 and 2006.

Discarded electronics and electronic components (e-waste) are creating a serious problem because of toxic elements involved in their manufacture. In the vast majority of cases, discarded computers and other electronic devices, such as cell phones, are functional and could be passed on to another individual or organization. Often, even non-functioning devices can be refurbished and resold or donated. Organizations such as StRUT (Students Recycling Used Technology), the National Cristina Foundation, and the Resource Area for Teachers (RAFT) collect and refurbish donated computer equipment for redistribution to schools and charities around the world.

A number of initiatives, such as eBay's Rethink project, have arisen to promote e-cycling. Dell, IBM, Intel, and Hewlett-Packard are among the members of Rethink.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 10

spool

To spool (which stands for "simultaneous peripheral operations online") a computer document or task list (or "job") is to read it in and store it, usually on a hard disk or larger storage medium so that it can be printed or otherwise processed at a more convenient time (for example, when a printer is finished printing its current document). One can envision spooling as reeling a document or task list onto a spool of thread so that it can be unreeled at a more convenient time.

The idea of spooling originated in early computer days when input was read in on punched cards for immediate printing (or processing and then immediately printing of the results). Since the computer operates at a much faster rate than input/output devices such as printers, it was more effective to store the read-in lines on a magnetic disk until they could be conveniently printed when the printer was free and the computer was less busy working on other tasks. Actually, a printer has a buffer but frequently the buffer isn't large enough to hold the entire document, requiring multiple I/O operations with the printer.

The spooling of documents for printing and batch job requests still goes on in mainframe computers where many users share a pool of resources. On personal computers, your print jobs (for example, a Web page you want to print) are spooled to an output file on hard disk if your printer is already printing another file.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 9

reprographics

Reprographics is a blanket term encompassing multiple methods of reproducing content, such as scanning , photography, xerography and digital printing. The term applies to both physical ( hard copy ) and digital ( soft copy ) reproductions of documents and images.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 8

WYSIWYG

A WYSIWYG (pronounced "wiz-ee-wig") editor or program is one that allows a developer to see what the end result will look like while the interface or document is being created. WYSIWYG is an acronym for "what you see is what you get". A WYSIWYG editor can be contrasted with more traditional editors that require the developer to enter descriptive codes (or markup ) and do not permit an immediate way to see the results of the markup. The first true WYSIWYG editor was a word processing program called Bravo. Invented by Charles Simonyi at the Xerox Palo Alto Research Center in the 1970s, it became the basis for Simonyi's work at Microsoft and evolved into two other WYSIWYG applications called Word and Excel .

An HTML WYSIWYG editor, such as Microsoft's FrontPage or Adobe's PageMill conceals the markup and allows the Web page developer to think entirely in terms of how the content should appear. One of the trade-offs, however, is that an HTML WYSIWYG editor sometimes inserts the markup code it thinks is needed all on its own. Then, the developer has to know enough about the markup language to go back into the source code and clean it up.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 7

screen printing

Screen printing, also known as serigraphy, is a method of creating an image on paper, fabric or some other object by pressing ink through a screen with areas blocked off by a stencil. The technique is used both for making fine art prints and for commercial applications, such as printing a company's logo on coffee mugs or t-shirts.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 6

laser printer

A laser printer is a popular type of personal computer printer that uses a non-impact (keys don't strike the paper), photocopier technology. When a document is sent to the printer, a laser beam "draws" the document on a selenium-coated drum using electrical charges. After the drum is charged, it is rolled in toner, a dry powder type of ink. The toner adheres to the charged image on the drum. The toner is transferred onto a piece of paper and fused to the paper with heat and pressure. After the document is printed, the electrical charge is removed from the drum and the excess toner is collected. Most laser printers print only in monochrome. A color laser printer is up to 10 times more expensive than a monochrome laser printer.

IBM introduced the first laser printer in 1975 for use with its mainframe computers. In 1984, Hewlett-Packard revolutionized laser-printing technology with its first LaserJet, a compact, fast, and reliable printer that personal computer users could afford. Since then, laser printers have decreased further in price and increased in quality. Hewlett Packard continues to be the leading manufacturer with competitors including Lexmark, Okidata, and Xerox.

The laser printer is different from an inkjet printer in a number of ways. The toner or ink in a laser printer is dry. In an inkjet, it is wet. Over time, an inkjet printer is about ten times more expensive to operate than a laser printer because ink needs replenishing more frequently. The printed paper from an inkjet printer will smear if wet, but a laser-printed document will not. Both types of printer operate quietly and allow fonts to be added by using font cartridges or installing soft fonts. If your printing needs are minimal, an inkjet printer is sufficient. But if your printing volume is high, consider buying a laser printer.

When buying a laser printer, these are some important features to consider:

Print capacity and speed: Personal laser printers are sufficient for printing an average of 200 pages per week. These are low-end and cost $200 and up. They can print up to eight ppm (pages per minute). A workgroup printer is needed if an average of 1000 pages per week is needed. These print up to 24 ppm and cost $1000 to $6000 and more. Production printers are needed for printing 50,000 or more pages per week. These are quite expensive and are used by commercial publishers. They can print up to 700 ppm and cost $100,000 and up. They can print 24 hours a day, seven days a week.

Resolution: The standard resolution in most laser printers today is 600 dots-per-inch ( dpi ). This resolution is sufficient for normal everyday printing including small desktop publishing jobs. A high-end production printer might have a resolution of 2400 dpi. Some laser printers still use a resolution of 300 dpi. This resolution can cause jagged lines to appear on the outer edge of an image. Hewlett Packard created RET (Resolution Enhancement Technology) to correct this. RET inserts smaller dots at the edges of lines and to smooth the rough edges. RET does not improve the resolution, but the document looks better. If you purchase a printer with 300 dpi, make sure it has RET.

Printer languages: Printer Control Language ( PCL ) is the standard printer language for Hewlett Packard and most other laser printers (which are mostly HP-compatible). PCL is used for printing letters, database printouts, spreadsheets, and simple graphics. Postscript printers are used with desktop publishing software and drawing packages. Postscript printers are the norm for Apple Macintosh printers. A laser printer that comes with Postscript installed is more expensive. A laser printer that uses PCL can be upgraded to Postscript by installing a software driver provided by the manufacturer of the laser printer. The printer might require more memory when upgraded to use Postscript. This is because a laser printer needs the entire image in memory before printing, and a Postscript printer requires more memory to process than a PCL printer does. The application being used must support Postscript in order for the laser printer to print Postscript documents.

Paper handling: Paper handling is important when shopping for a laser printer. Most laser printers use letter-size, cut-sheet paper. High-end production printers use continuous sheet paper. Laser printers can print on transparencies, adhesive labels, and lightweight cards. A laser printer with duplex printing can print on one side of the paper, turn the paper over, and print on the other side. Most laser printers, however, use simple printing with manual duplex printing. Manual duplex printing is achieved by changing the print options in the printer's properties or printing one side and taking that same paper and reinserting it into the printer to print on the other side.

FPOT and warm-up time: A final consideration in purchasing a printer is FPOT (first paper out time) and warm-up time. When a laser printer receives data from the computer to print, it takes 5 to 30 seconds to prepare the printer to print a new job. This is in addition to the time it takes to actually print the document. The warm-up time is as important. When the printer is turned on, it needs time to warm up the fuser to operating temperature. If the printer has a standby mode or is turned off between printing jobs, the warm-up time becomes even more important. Large workgroup and production printers can take 5 to 15 minutes to warm up. This waiting period can hinder overall productivity.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 5

xerography

Xerography, also known as electrophotography, is a printing and photocopying technique that works on the basis of electrostatic charges. The xerography process is the dominant method of reproducing images and printing computer data and is used in photocopiers, laser printer s and fax machines. The term derives from the Greek words xeros , meaning dry and graphos , meaning writing.

Xerography was invented in the late 1930s by an American patent lawyer named Chester Carlson. At first, engineers considered the idea useless and several years passed before the potential of the invention was appreciated by industry. During those years, IBM, Kodak, General Electric and RCA were among the companies that turned Carlson away. The Battelle Memorial Institute, a nonprofit organization, invested in Carlson's research and eventually signed a licensing agreement with a company called Haloid. Battelle and Haloid collaborated in research and demonstrated the technique in 1948. Haloid subsequently became Xerox.

The original xerography process allowed for reproducing or printing only grayscale images. Later, the capability to reproduce and print color images was developed. High-end grayscale and color laser printers can provide hard copy nearly as good as that produced by an offset printer. Xerography may eventually supplant traditional printing for the production of books and magazines.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 4

dots per inch

1) In computers, dots per inch (dpi) is a measure of the sharpness (that is, the density of illuminated points) on a display screen . The dot pitch determines the absolute limit of the possible dots per inch. However, the displayed resolution of pixel s (picture elements) that is set up for the display is usually not as fine as the dot pitch. The dots per inch for a given picture resolution will differ based on the overall screen size since the same number of pixels are being spread out over a different space. Some users prefer the term "pixels per inch ( ppi )" as a measure of display image sharpness, reserving dpi for use with the print medium.

2) In printing, dots per inch (dpi) is the usual measure of printed image quality on the paper. The average personal computer printer today provides 300 dpi or 600 dpi. Choosing the higher print quality usually reduces the speed of printing each page.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 3

letterpress

Letterpress is the oldest form of printing. In this method, a surface with raised letters is inked and pressed to the surface of the printing substrate to reproduce an image in reverse. Typically, metal type has been used but other possibilites include carved wood or stone blocks.

After the Gutenberg press introduced movable type to the process in the 15th century, letterpress was the predominant printing method for 500 years. The creation of huge rotary presses made industrial printing and newspaper production practical.

By the 1950s, xerography and offset printing began to supplant letterpress and by the end of the 20th century, digital printing and related technologies had become the industry standard for many uses. Nevertheless, letterpress is still used for some specialized commercial applications. The old method is also enjoying a resurgence among modern-day enthusiasts who prize the hand-made qualities and historical nature of letterpress print.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 2

engraving

Engraving, in a printing context, is a method of creating raised areas of print or images on paper, such as a business card or letterhead. An impression is created on a metal plate, which is then filled with opaque ink. When paper is pressed into the plate, it creates raised and colored areas. A similar effect can be created by thermographic printing . Engraving and gravure are the two most common forms of intaglio printing.

Quiz: Printers and printing ANSWERS

ANSWER FOR 1

Postscript

Postscript is a programming language that describes the appearance of a printed page. It was developed by Adobe in 1985 and has become an industry standard for printing and imaging. All major printer manufacturers make printers that contain or can be loaded with Postscript software, which also runs on all major operating system platforms. A Postscript file can be identified by its ".ps" suffix.

Postscript describes the text and graphic elements on a page to a black-and-white or color printer or other output device, such as a slide recorder, imagesetter, or screen display. Postscript handles industry-standard, scalable typeface in the Type 1 and TrueType formats. Users can convert Postscript files to the Adobe Portable Document Format ( PDF ) using the Adobe Acrobat product. PDF files present the document's printed appearance on a display screen. (You'll find many PDF documents for downloading and viewing from Web sites; you'll need to download the Acrobat viewer as a plug-in .) Adobe sells a more sophisticated product called Supra for print-on-demand and production printing.

Note that the average home laser printer is not a Postscript printer; which is somewhat more expensive and more frequently purchased for business use. (However, they aren't that expensive and Postscript printers for home or small business use are worth considering.)

Quiz: Workstations ANSWER KEY

Answer Key: 1c; 2d; 3b; 4a; 5c; 6a; 7d; 8a; 9b; 10e

Quiz: Servers ANSWER KEY

ANSWER KEY: 1b;2d;3d;4d;5a;6e;7b;8e;9c;10c

Quiz: Networking Hardware ANSWER KEY

ANSWER KEY: 1s;2a;3o;4q;5e;6k;7c;8p;9j;10r

Quiz: Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

BONUS question:

Everyone knows IBM stands for "International Business Machine" but what does the BMC in BMC Software come from?

    * A) Business Management and Control
    * B) Binding Mainframes and Commerce
    * C) Building Mainframe Control
    * D) None of the above -- BMC Software was named after its founders: Scott Boulett , John Moores and Dan Cloer.

scroll down for ANSWER























































THE ANSWER IS D.

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 9

check System z Application Assist Processor (zAAP)

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 8

Also see NetRexx, a language that combines ideas from Java and Rexx.

Rexx is an interpreted script language developed by IBM originally for use by personal users of large operating systems. It was designed for ease of learning and use and to make programming accessible to non-programmers. It offers powerful character-manipulation, automatic data typing, manipulation of words, numbers, and names, and debugging capabilities.

REXX can be compared with these interpreted script languages:

    * Visual Basic
    * Netscape's JavaScript
    * Sun Microsystem Tcl
    * Larry Wall's Perl

In general, script languages are easier and faster to code in than the more structured, compiled languages such as C and C++ and are ideal for programs of very limited capability or that can reuse and tie together existing compiled programs.

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 7

MVS (Multiple Virtual Storage) is an operating system from IBM that continues to run on many of IBM's mainframe and large server computers. MVS has been said to be the operating system that keeps the world going and the same could be said of its successor systems, OS/390 and z/OS. The payroll, accounts receivable, transaction processing, database management, and other programs critical to the world's largest businesses are usually run on an MVS or successor system. Although MVS has often been seen as a monolithic, centrally-controlled information system, IBM has in recent years repositioned it (and successor systems) as a "large server" in a network-oriented distributed environment, using a 3-tier application model.

The follow-on version of MVS, OS/390, no longer included the "MVS" in its name. Since MVS represents a certain epoch and culture in the history of computing and since many older MVS systems still operate, the term "MVS" will probably continue to be used for some time. Since OS/390 also comes with Unix user and programming interfaces built in, it can be used as both an MVS system and a UNIX system at the same time. A more recent evolution of MVS is z/OS, an operating system for IBM's zSeries mainframes. MVS systems run older applications developed using COBOL and, for transaction programs, CICS. Older application programs written in PL/I and FORTRAN are still running. Older applications use the Virtual Storage Access Method access method for file management and Virtual Telecommunications Access Method for telecommunication with users. The most common program environment today uses the C and C++ languages. DB2 is IBM's primary relational database management system (RDBMS). Java applications can be developed and run under OS/390's UNIX environment.

MVS is a generic name for specific products that included MVS/SP (MVS/System Product), MVS/XA (MVS/Extended Architecture), and MVS/ESA (MVS/Enterprise Systems Architecture). Historically, MVS evolved from OS/360, the operating system for the System/360, which was released in 1964. It later became the OS/370 and the System/370. OS/370 evolved into the OS/VS, OS/MFT, OS/MVT, OS/MVS, MVS/SP, MVS/XA, MVS/ESA, and finally OS/390 and then z/OS. Throughout this evolution, application programs written for any operating system have always been able to run in any of the later operating systems. (This is called forward compatibility.)

An MVS system is a set of basic products and a set of optional products. This allows a customer to choose the set of functions they need and exclude the rest. In practice, most customers probably use almost all of the functions. The main user interface in MVS systems is TSO (Time Sharing Option). The Interactive System Productivity Facility (ISPF) is a set of menus for compiling and managing programs and for configuring the system. The main work management system is either Job Entry Subsystem 2 or 3 (JES2 or JES3). Storage (DASD) management is performed by DFSMS (Distributed File Storage Management Subsystem). MVS is considerably more complex and requires much more education and experience to operate than smaller server and personal computer operating systems.

The Virtual Storage in MVS refers to the use of virtual memory in the operating system. Virtual storage or memory allows a program to have access to the maximum amount of memory in a system even though this memory is actually being shared among more than one application program. The operating system translates the program's virtual address into the real physical memory address where the data is actually located. The Multiple in MVS indicates that a separate virtual memory is maintained for each of multiple task partitions.

Other IBM operating systems for their larger computers include or have included: the Transaction Processing Facility (TPF), used in some major airline reservation systems, and VM, an operating system designed to serve many interactive users at the same time.

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 6

The number of MIPS (million instructions per second) is a general measure of computing performance and, by implication, the amount of work a larger computer can do. For large servers or mainframes, MIPS is a way to measure the cost of computing: the more MIPS delivered for the money, the better the value. Historically, the cost of computing measured in the number of MIPS has been reduced by half on an annual basis for a number of years.

The number of MIPS attributed to a computer is usually determined by one or more benchmark runs.

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 5

RACF (Resource Access Control Facility) is the IBM security management product for its mainframe (large server) operating system, OS/390 (MVS) as well as for its VM operating system. RACF allows an enterprise to manage the biggest security threat in most enterprises: destruction of computing resources by its own employees. Since its first release in 1976, RACF has screened millions of mainframe users who are familiar with their logon identification as their "RACF userid.""

RACF gives access to a computer system only to users who have the authorization to use a requested resource (such as a file, a printer queue, space to run a program, and so forth). To do this, RACF identifies and authenticates a user, determines the resources to which the user is authorized, and logs and reports attempts to get access to protected resources by unauthorized users.

In OS/390, RACF is part of the Security Server.

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 4

IMS (Information Management System) is a database and transaction management system that was first introduced by IBM in 1968. Since then, IMS has gone through many changes in adapting to new programming tools and environments. IMS is one of two major legacy database and transaction management subsystems from IBM that run on mainframe MVS (now z/OS) systems. The other is CICS. It is claimed that, historically, application programs that use either (or both) IMS or CICS services have handled and continue to handle most of the world's banking, insurance, and order entry transactions.

IMS consists of two major components, the IMS Database Management System (IMS DB) and the IMS Transaction Management System (IMS TM). In IMS DB, the data is organized into a hierarchy. The data in each level is dependent on the data in the next higher level. The data is arranged so that its integrity is ensured, and the storage and retrieval process is optimized. IMS TM controls I/O (input/output) processing, provides formatting, logging, and recovery of messages, maintains communications security, and oversees the scheduling and execution of programs. TM uses a messaging mechanism for queuing requests.

IMS's original programming interface was DL/1 (Data Language/1). Today, IMS applications and databases can be connected to CICS applications and DB2 databases. Java programs can access IMS databases and services.

IMS also stands for Intelligent Manufacturing Systems and IP Multimedia Subsystem.

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 3

DASD, pronounced DAZ-dee (Direct access storage device), is a general term for magnetic disk storage devices. The term has historically been used in the mainframe and minicomputer (mid-range computer) environments and is sometimes used to refer to hard disk drives for personal computers. A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is also a type of DASD.

The "direct access" means that all data can be accessed directly in about the same amount of time rather than having to progress sequentially through the data.

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 2

CICS (Customer Information Control System) is an online transaction processing (OLTP) program from IBM that, together with the COBOL programming language, has formed over the past several decades the most common set of tools for building customer transaction applications in the world of large enterprise mainframe computing. A great number of the legacy applications still in use are COBOL/CICS applications. Using the application programming interface (API) provided by CICS, a programmer can write programs that communicate with online users and read from or write to customer and other records (orders, inventory figures, customer data, and so forth) in a database (usually referred to as "data sets") using CICS facilities rather than IBM's access methods directly. Like other transaction managers, CICS can ensure that transactions are completed and, if not, undo partly completed transactions so that the integrity of data records is maintained.

IBM markets or supports a CICS product for OS/390, Unix, and Intel PC operating systems. Some of IBM's customers use IBM's Transaction Server to handle e-business transactions from Internet users and forward these to a mainframe server that accesses an existing CICS order and inventory database

Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

ANSWER FOR 1

EBCDIC (Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code ) (pronounced either "ehb-suh-dik" or "ehb-kuh-dik") is a binary code for alphabetic and numeric characters that IBM developed for its larger operating systems. It is the code for text files that is used in IBM's OS/390 operating system for its S/390 servers and that thousands of corporations use for their legacy applications and databases. In an EBCDIC file, each alphabetic or numeric character is represented with an 8-bit binary number (a string of eight 0's or 1's). 256 possible characters (letters of the alphabet, numerals, and special characters) are defined.

IBM's PC and workstation operating systems do not use IBM's proprietary EBCDIC. Instead, they use the industry standard code for text, ASCII. Conversion programs allow different operating systems to change a file from one code to another.

Quiz: Laptops

ANSWER KEY: 1d; 2c; 3a; 4e; 5b; 6e; 7a; 8d; 9b; 10e

Quiz: HP

ANSWER KEY: 1c; 2a; 3c; 4b; 5b; 6a; 7b; 8d; 9c; 10a

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 10

refurbish

Refurbish, in everyday language, is "to renew or to restore to a new condition and/or appearance". In the computer world, refurbished equipment is not necessarily defective in any way; it may just be "old" (a relative term in the world of computers). When hardware is refurbished, the components are examined and non-working parts are replaced.

Companies that lease computers may use refurbishing as a means of dealing with units that are returning from long-term leases; after the computers are refurbished, they may be sold at a reduced price or donated to charity - either of which is good for business. Corporations may buy refurbished computers and hardware for a number of reasons. Refurbished hardware costs less than new hardware, which makes it possible for small businesses to make the move to computerized operations for the first time or for businesses with limited means to buy higher quality computers for less money. Another reason for a corporation to buy refurbished equipment is to maintain corporate standards by ensuring that all employees have the same equipment, even when the model being used is not being sold any longer.

There are additional reasons for choosing refurbished hardware if a company is already computerized. For example, there may be a corporate plan to use desktop computers for three years before upgrading to newer ones. In the latter part of the three-year period, equipment purchases may be needed for new staff or to replace a component that no longer works. Since the corporation intends to replace all desktop computers in the near future, the purchasing department may not want to pay full price for any new equipment at the end of this three-year period. Refurbished computers provide a cost-effective alternative.

A number of organizations, such as StRUT (Students Recycling Used Technology), the National Cristina Foundation, and the Resource Area for Teachers (RAFT) collect and refurbish donated computer equipment for redistribution to schools and charities around the world.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 9

A green data center is a repository for the storage, management, and dissemination of data in which the mechanical, lighting, electrical and computer systems are designed for maximum energy efficiency and minimum environmental impact. The construction and operation of a green data center includes advanced technologies and strategies. Here are some examples:

    * Minimizing the footprints of the buildings
    * The use of low-emission building materials, carpets and paints
    * Sustainable landscaping
    * Waste recycling
    * Installation of catalytic converters on backup generators
    * The use of alternative energy technologies such as photovoltaics, heat pumps, and evaporative cooling
    * The use of hybrid or electric company vehicles

Building and certifying a green data center or other facility can be expensive up front, but long-term cost savings can be realized on operations and maintenance. Another advantage is the fact that green facilities offer employees a healthy, comfortable work environment. In addition, green facilities enhance relations with local communities.

There is growing pressure from environmentalists and, increasingly, the general public for governments to offer green incentives: monetary support for the creation and maintenance of ecologically responsible technologies.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 8

heat

Heat is the transfer of kinetic energy from one medium or object to another, or from an energy source to a medium or object. Such energy transfer can occur in three ways: radiation, conduction, and convection.

The standard unit of heat in the International System of Units ( SI ) is the calorie (cal), which is the amount of energy transfer required to raise the temperature of one gram of pure liquid water by one degree Celsius, provided the water temperature is higher than the freezing point and lower than the boiling point. Sometimes the kilocalorie (kcal) is specified as a unit of heat; 1 kcal = 1000 cal. (This is the so-called diet calorie.) Less often, the British thermal unit ( Btu ) is used. This is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of pure liquid water by one degree Fahrenheit.

An example of heat by radiation is the effect of infrared ( IR ) energy as it strikes a surface. IR is an electromagnetic field capable of transfering energy from a source, such as a fireplace, to a destination, such as the surfaces within a room. Radiation does not require an intervening medium; it can occur through a vacuum. It is responsible for the warming of the Earth by the sun.

Heat by conduction takes place when two material media or objects are in direct contact, and the temperature of one is higher than the temperature of the other. The temperatures tend to equalize; thus the heat conduction consists of a transfer of kinetic energy from the warmer medium to the cooler one. An example is the immersion of a chilled human body in a hot bath.

Heat by convection occurs when the motion of a liquid or gas carries energy from a warmer region to a cooler region. A good example of convection is the tendency of warm air to rise and cool air to fall, equalizing the air temperature inside a room containing a hot stove. Heat convection (along with conduction) is believed to take place inside the Earth, transfering kinetic energy from the inner core through the outer core and mantle to the crust. In this situation, the outer core and the mantle behave like liquids over long periods of time.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 7

screen saver

A screen saver is an animated image that is activated on a personal computer display when no user activity has been sensed for a certain time. The original purpose of a screen saver was to prevent burn-in (the burning of an image into the phosphor inside the cathode ray tube after hours of the same image being rescanned). In fact, today's CRT display technology makes burn-in unlikely except under extreme conditions. (On larger displays used for room presentations, burn-in is still a possibility.)

Windows comes with built-in screen savers that you can select. If you purchase your computer with the operating system already installed, a screen saver may have been selected for you. You can set the screen saver using the task bar by selecting Start, then Settings, then Control Panel, then Display, and then Screen Saver, which lets you select one of the provided screen savers or one you have added to the Windows screen saver directory. The Mac also lets you set up a screen saver.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 6

LCD (liquid crystal display) is the technology used for displays in notebook and other smaller computers. Like light-emitting diode (LED) and gas-plasma technologies, LCDs allow displays to be much thinner than cathode ray tube (CRT) technology. LCDs consume much less power than LED and gas-display displays because they work on the principle of blocking light rather than emitting it.

An LCD is made with either a passive matrix or an active matrix display display grid. The active matrix LCD is also known as a thin film transistor (TFT) display. The passive matrix LCD has a grid of conductors with pixels located at each intersection in the grid. A current is sent across two conductors on the grid to control the light for any pixel. An active matrix has a transistor located at each pixel intersection, requiring less current to control the luminance of a pixel. For this reason, the current in an active matrix display can be switched on and off more frequently, improving the screen refresh time (your mouse will appear to move more smoothly across the screen, for example).

Some passive matrix LCD's have dual scanning, meaning that they scan the grid twice with current in the same time that it took for one scan in the original technology. However, active matrix is still a superior technology.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 5

planned obsolescence

Planned obsolescence, also called built-in obsolescence, is the conception, design and production of a product, such as hardware or software , with the intent that it should be useful, functional or popular for a limited length of time. The term was coined in the 1950s by Brooks Stevens who suggested that new and improved products are in constant demand by consumers and that corporations can best respond by manufacturing items that don't last very long.

In the computer industry, planned obsolescence occurs in a synergistic manner between the hardware and software sectors. New application s and operating system s (OSs) demand more memory , hard disk space, storage capacity and throughput . This demand leads to the development of improved memory technology, increasingly capacious hard drives and storage media and faster microprocessor s. These developments, in turn, are followed by still more sophisticated applications and OSs, driving the cycle to continue. All of this is fueled by the geek 's love of gadgetry and an ongoing decline in the costs of raw materials and production processes.

Cynics decry planned obsolescence as a symptom of a "disposable society" and express nostalgia for the "good old days" when things were "built to last." Corporate executives counter with the claim that planned obsolescence is market-driven, taking place for no other purpose than to keep pace with the ever-changing needs and wants of consumers.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 4

Puppy Linux is a lightweight Linux distribution, one of several similar operating systems in a group called skinny Linux. Puppy Linux is most often run from a LiveCD or other removable media, which makes it easy to use on a computer that normally runs another operating system, such as Windows, without making any permanent changes to the system. This capacity, along with its compact size and ease of use, has made Puppy Linux a popular means of reviving old computers.

Puppy Linux has several advantages that allow it to function as a desktop replacement for users who want a fast, compact, relatively trouble-free OS. These include:

    * Relative immunity to problems with malware such as viruses and Trojans.
    * Compatibility with older computers that don't typically work with newer operating systems.
    * Presence in a RAM disk after boot-up.
    * An integrated browser with all the features of other popular Web browsers.
    * Ability to play CDs and DVDs on computers with only one CD/DVD drive.
    * Preinstallation of several popular applications.
    * Ability to generate a bootable USB jump drive version of itself.
    * A thin client that can be used with Microsoft Windows.
    * Ability to create a stateless client for use with other OSs.

Barry Kauler began the Puppy Linux initiative in January 2003. The open source community continues to develop the product.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 3

In computers, water cooling is a method used to lower the temperatures of computer processors, and sometimes other components such as graphics cards, using water rather than air as the cooling medium. Processor speeds have increased dramatically in recent years. As a result, the heat given off by processors has also increased, as has the noise associated with equipment, such as fans, used to keep them running at a safe temperature. Because water can conduct heat about 30 times faster than air can, a water cooling system allows the processor to run at higher speeds while drastically reducing system noise. Some industry experts predict that water cooling systems will become standard for personal computers in the near future.

Here's a simple example of a water cooling system: A pump circulates the water through a water block (a device similar to a heat sink) attached to the processor; there, heat from the processor transfers to the water. The heated water continues on to a radiator at the back of the computer case and is replaced with cool water. The heat from the water in the radiator dissipates into the air surrounding the computer. When the water has cooled to the ambient temperature, it is cycled through the system again.

Water cooling is increasingly used to deal with the special requirements of the data center. Because data centers are often assigned the most convenient available space, rather than a space that is specially designed, servers may be contained in too small an area or one that cannot be adequately ventilated. Furthermore, some data center technologies, such as blade servers (which are densely structured), put increased stress on the data center's cooling system.

Water cooling brings its own issues to the data center, however, as well as benefits. Additional plumbing is often required. Water cooling can limit the flexibility of data center design because systems connected to plumbing cannot be easily rearranged. The combination of electronic systems and water also complicates disaster recovery planning (DRP). For example, administrators need to know in advance how they will deal with potential problems, such as rust or leakage. A common fear of combining electrical systems and water is another road block to acceptance of water cooling.

Despite the inherent challenges, many industry experts predict that water cooling is the inescapable future of the data center. According to Robert E. McFarlane, president of the Interport Division of New York-based Shen, Milsom and Wilke Inc., "Paranoia is the reason there's so little water-cooled equipment on the market. We tend to get married to the technologies that we know and are comfortable with, but it's getting to that point where you just can't cool these densities without carrying it in liquid form."

Water cooling is nothing new -- automobiles and mainframe computers have used water cooling systems for many years. However, water cooling is being used in some new and innovative applications, such as environmentally friendly air conditioning systems for buildings.

Water cooling is sometimes referred to as liquid cooling, because various other substances are sometimes used instead of, or in addition to, water.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 2

Linux (often pronounced LIH-nuhks with a short "i") is a Unix-like operating system that was designed to provide personal computer users a free or very low-cost operating system comparable to traditional and usually more expensive Unix systems. Linux has a reputation as a very efficient and fast-performing system. Linux's kernel (the central part of the operating system) was developed by Linus Torvalds at the University of Helsinki in Finland. To complete the operating system, Torvalds and other team members made use of system components developed by members of the Free Software Foundation for the GNU Project.

Ask your Linux questions at ITKnowledgeExchange.com

Linux is a remarkably complete operating system, including a graphical user interface, an X Window System, TCP/IP, the Emacs editor, and other components usually found in a comprehensive Unix system. Although copyrights are held by various creators of Linux's components, Linux is distributed using the Free Software Foundation's copyleft stipulations that mean any modified version that is redistributed must in turn be freely available.

Unlike Windows and other proprietary systems, Linux is publicly open and extendible by contributors. Because it conforms to the Portable Operating System Interface standard user and programming interfaces, developers can write programs that can be ported to other operating systems. Linux comes in versions for all the major microprocessor platforms including the Intel, PowerPC, Sparc, and Alpha platforms. It's also available on IBM's S/390. Linux is distributed commercially by a number of companies. A magazine, Linux Journal, is published as well as a number of books and pocket references.

Linux is sometimes suggested as a possible publicly-developed alternative to the desktop predominance of Microsoft Windows. Although Linux is popular among users already familiar with Unix, it remains far behind Windows in numbers of users. However, its use in the business enterprise is growing.

Linux is a contraction for Linus' Unix; the short i sound preferred by most (including Torvalds) derives from the Swedish pronunciation of Linus.

Quiz: Greening the cube farm

ANSWER FOR 1

$100 laptop

XO is the first version of the $100 laptop expected to reach a substantial number of users. The $100 laptop is a product that several computer companies and thinkers have suggested over the years to help bridge the digital divide and bring information service to people in rural areas of developing countries. MIT's Media Lab founder Nicholas Negroponte, co-founder of the One Laptop per Child (OLPC) initiative, first proposed the $100 laptop as a way to encourage education and alleviate third world poverty.

The OLPC project plans to roll out approximately 2,500 laptops to eight countries in February 2007. The intention is to produce five million laptops by July 2007, scaling to 50 million by 2008. This version of the $100 laptop, called XO, will cost $150 but the expectation is that mass production will bring the cost down to $100 by 2008 and below that figure by 2010.

Some details:

    * XO is about the same size as a text book and lightweight (target weight is less than 1.5 kilograms), with an integrated handle.
    * When the laptop is closed, the keyboard and display are hermetically sealed to prevent dust and water from damaging the machine.
    * The display features a 7.5-inch 1200 x 900 pixel LCD screen.
    * The display changes from color to black and white for viewing in bright light (such as outdoors).
    * A string pulley, which Walter Bender of OLPC likens to a salad spinner, powers the battery.
    * One minute of pulling generates 10 minutes of power.
    * XO operates in thin client mode -- there is no hard drive or PCMCIA slot.
    * XO includes a Web cam and programs for creating music.
    * The laptops have wireless networking capabilities and use a lightweight version of Fedora (see skinny Linux ).
    * XO is built without toxic materials.

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 10

CRAC units with existing HVAC

We're building an existing room into a high thermal density datacenter. Our facilities HVAC rep intends to supplement the new CRAC Units with existing general house HVAC registers, to assist with managing the high heat loads. Will this arrangement cause more pressure and flow problems than it attempts to solve?I'm sure you'll understand that I can't give a definitive answer without seeing the full designs, but I can certainly provide some issues and concerns I would want addressed if I were ...

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 9

Block those holes!

Where does all that air go? One thing's for sure -- in most data centers much of it never makes it to the equipment it's supposed to cool. Lots of cold air leaks out of a multitude of openings in the floor tiles, doing virtually nothing. And a lot more disappears right in front of the cabinets after it gets out of the floor. Air conditioning is expensive, and that's a lot of wasted energy and a pile of wasted money, to say nothing of the shorter life you get from equipment that overheats.

It wasn't so critical a few years ago. Energy was cheaper and heat loads weren't as high. But with fuel costs going through the roof and heaters being shipped to data centers disguised as computers, we now have to make things a lot more efficient. The fundamentals are actually easier than you might think. In fact, basic remedies are downright simple, and pretty darn cheap compared with installing more refrigeration.

In most data centers, 25% or more of the cold air is probably being lost. There are two major places to look: your raised floor and your equipment cabinets. Let's start with the raised floor.

The biggest holes are usually the ones the cable comes through (although we've seen entire floor tiles removed, which is just complete foolishness). It used to be standard practice to just cut a 6- or 8-inch square hole, or even larger, no matter how many or how few wires needed to go through it. At one time, when mainframes used those huge "buss and tag" cables, large openings were needed to pass the oversized connectors. And since those holes were usually under equipment that was cooled from below anyway, it really didn't matter. Not so today. RJ-45's, and even the largest power plugs, will go through a much smaller hole. But an amazing amount of air will still leak through that opening, around the spaces that aren't filled with wires. Those holes have got to be sealed. There are two ways: Make some kind of seal yourself -- out of Masonite and duct tape or some such contrivance -- or use a commercial product made for the job that makes it easy to add or remove cables in the future. Two such products are the KoldLok Brush Grommet, and the Sub-Zero Pillow. Take your choice. The Pillow will seal most holes more completely, is less expensive, easier to install and adapts to a wide variety of opening sizes. The Brush Grommet comes in only a few sizes, stops most of the air but not all and can be a little pricey, but it's a lot neater, and no one can remove it and forget to put it back.

Next, look for all those places where pipes, conduits or anything else penetrates the floor. Unlike cables, which are subject to change, these things aren't going anywhere. Seal them with Fire Stop Putty or any good caulking that won't dry up and shrink. If they're too big, the fire stop manufacturers make products to go behind the putty (CableOrganizer.com, NelsonFireStop.com and a host of others). Just don't use fiberglass, mineral wool or any other product that can flake off and get into the air going to your equipment.

Now look all around the room where tiles have been cut to the walls or air conditioners or anything else. A good quality, closed-cell weather stripping will usually seal all these openings. Lastly, look for tiles that don't seat tightly. Some air will leak through the seams between the floor tiles. That's inevitable unless the installation has been made with special products and techniques that fully seal these joints, which is highly unlikely in a data center. But the amount of leakage in a normal, well-installed floor is tolerable IF you have sealed all the other holes. If the floor is older, it may be necessary to have a raised floor contractor come in to re-level the tiles and get them as well aligned and seated as possible. After equipment is in place, however, there can only be a certain amount of improvement. Tiles trapped under equipment racks can't be moved or re-aligned, so they will determine how well adjacent tiles can be aligned. But every little bit helps.

Now let's get to the easiest, most overlooked and usually most effective way to improve cooling in the whole data center: unused panel spaces in cabinets. We must assume that your layout conforms with the accepted "hot aisle/cold aisle" approach, with cabinets oriented "front-to-front" and "back-to-back." If not, there aren't many things you can do to help except to re-orient your cabinets and change your whole layout, which is obviously not easy. But if your installation is "hot/cold aisle," you just MUST close those unused panel spaces. If you don't, the air you manage to push through your perforated tiles gets up to the first unused panel space and just flows right through the cabinet to the back. It's called "bypass air," and it does two really bad things. First, it starves all the equipment above the opening of cold air. There's always a temperature gradient from bottom-to-top that makes the upper equipment run hotter than that closer to the base of the cabinet, but if most of the cold air has escaped through the cabinet before it even gets to the top, that upper hardware is going to run much hotter and will have a much shorter life. Second, the cold air bypassing through the cabinet mixes with the hot air that must return to the air conditioners, cooling it down. That's the air that tells CRAC's how much new cold air to put out. If the return air is already cooled down somewhat, it fools the air conditioners into thinking everything is fine, so they stop working so hard. The result? Less cooling to the hardware, higher temperatures, shorter life and some strange cycling of the air conditioners than can also upset the humidity control.

And there's another factor. (Who said this was easy?) Not only can cold air bypass from front to back, but hot air can bypass from back to front. Since warm air rises naturally, this just worsens a bad situation by delivering even warmer air to the upper computers. In short, you're engaging in "computer euthanasia" simply by leaving these openings. Is it any wonder that the servers toward the tops of the cabinets statistically have a higher failure and error rate than those at the bottom? Load cabinets from bottom to top, and then close all the remaining spaces with blank panels. If you make a lot of changes, or you can't get people to pick up a screwdriver to replace the panels, several manufacturers now make "snap-in" panels. IBM and SMC make them, too, if you can ever locate them on their Web sites. There are probably others, and we know of several cabinet manufacturers who are planning to come out with them. Snap-ins are a little more expensive, but there's simply no excuse for not putting them back in when a change is made.

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 8

check inglenet

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 7

Blades in your data center?

There are many misconceptions about blades and some truisms that are misunderstood. In order to thoroughly evaluate the benefit of blade servers for your environment, there are some principles that must be understood. Implementing blades, how many, and what options to chose will all depend on a successful ROI and TCO model for your organization. One thing that organizations have done in the past is to take ROI and ownership statements verbatim from manufacturers. These will not always apply due to the fact that in some cases, stated savings are false if the expenditure did not already exist.

One thing is true, however, and that is that blades are becoming more tightly integrated with storage, either in a SAN environment or as NAS. New options also exist in the way of management and virtualization of servers. The coexistence of the technologies can provide a significant savings to companies through ease of management and a more integrated environment.

One of the largest misconceptions is that Blades will cause an increase in your cooling and power consumption. While this may be true in some cases, this does not mean that you will have to completely revamp your facilities. In fact in some environments, this change may not be needed at all. Many data centers suffer from abandoned cable issues which create an air dam and may keep cooling units and chillers from operating at peak efficiencies. This is due to systems changing out over time, older point to point systems and non-structured cabling. These are all reasons why the new TIA 942 data center standard recommends running all cabling accommodating growth so that these areas do not have to be revisited.

With that said, any time there is a large equipment change, it is prudent to reevaluate your facilities and infrastructure. Blade server chassis can be outfitted with a variety of networking options. Connectivity will typically be either network only, or network and storage. Understanding what the needs are for your organization can assist with this. When planning your facilities, you should examine not only the new equipment, but also what equipment will be leaving the data center. There are many options for providing power and cooling to the data center.

There is retrofit gear from Liebert, APC and others to assist. Which you chose will be highly dependent on preference, availability and legacy facility gear. This is not to say that you will always choose the same manufacturer, but certainly, all options should be addressed. What was a great solution at one time, may be inefficient today. The same would hold true if you were adding rack mount servers, main frame connections, or midrange server connections, as well as any storage.

In some cases, it may be advantageous to select a product that will scale with your purchases. Cabinets such as the InfrastruXure line provided by APC allow you to add cooling and power conditioning as needed which could save money as opposed to "over supplying" facilities and incurring the ongoing expenses of power consumption for areas where that power/cooling is not needed immediately. It is important to consider not only day one expenses, but also those recurring year after year. In each of these calculations, you will want to look at management capabilities and security within your enclosures as well.

While some of your cabinets may not be completely full with servers, if you factor processing power per square inch of data center space, you are likely to still be ahead. In order to determine the benefits here, you should factor day one equipment expenditures, cost of the floor space, facilities and then divide by the amount of processing power in contrast. This will help you arrive at your total equipment total cost of ownership. For instance, if I can get the same processing power out of one blade server with 4 blades in a 6RU (rack unit) footprint compared to 4 2RU footprints, I am saving 2RU in my cabinet. However with growth potential, new applications and servers will require the addition of a blade server – no RU loss of space.

Depending on the processors chosen, if I divide the total RU's by processing power, blades quickly become attractive to these budgets. The servers can be upgraded without having to change out the chassis in most cases, which is another benefit.

While you are comparing the server and cabinet to other configurations, you must deduct the additional port costs on your storage and network switches. In a 2RU rack mounted server, you will typically have 4 connections: one for the primary network connection, one for the secondary network connection, one for inband monitoring and finally one for out of band monitoring. With a blade server, the chassis can share these connections. The additional switches that would be required to support these connections are a savings. While each blade may have its own primary and secondary connection, the monitoring now is limited to two per chassis rather than two per server.

Bear in mind that the minimal cabling savings is minor. The real savings is in the initial purchase of the added switch ports, monitoring ports and monitoring software if it is priced by the port. Day two savings are through additional maintenance costs that would be realized. These will also become part of the comparison figures. In a rack mount situation, you may fill the remainder of the cabinet with switch ports which also require power, cooling and maintenance. This can make a half empty rack look attractive over viewing it as a "waste" of floor space.

The trend in data centers has been to fill every available rack unit with equipment, cabling or something and to waste none due to the cost of the data center floor space. However, as data is becoming more and more important to companies, the most efficient calculations are changing from the standard fully loaded rack to the most efficient use of space. The efficiency will be based on processing power, cooling, heating and benefit. Once the physical comparisons are complete, the next step is to address people and resource savings. This is above and beyond what we have considered thus far.

People savings and resource savings will include, boot from SAN technology where desktop administration may be lessened through a single user interface, administration savings realized through a single chassis as opposed to many separate chassis, patch management, remote monitoring and NOC resources, etc. These calculations will be unique to every company and every situation. It is no secret that most application vendors would rather have their own server and not share any applications with any other vendors to help lessen troubleshooting time.

Adding your equipment equations to your people resource equations will provide you with a useful ROI tool. Adding day two expenses with all things considered will provide you with a meaningful total cost of ownership. Each vendor will have specific heating and cooling requirements. For an excellent tutorial, go to IBM's website.

Blade servers can also provide the savings in these areas. The chassis becomes a single point of management not only in regards to networking gear, but also in regards to people resources. This translates to a direct savings in time for daily operations and troubleshooting. The BladeSystems Alliance is a non-vendor specific site for end-users, analysts and others to learn more about blade servers and the technology that surrounds them. From here, you can find links to server manufacturers, connectivity options, cabinet and cooling manufacturers, storage providers and software companies. Or as always, feel free to send me your questions here at TechTarget.

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 6

Cooling high-density racks

We're considering a server consolidation program using blade servers, but we're concerned about the heat from high-density racks.You're right to be concerned – excessive heat can affect the performance, availability and lifespan of electronic equipment. Fortunately, data center cooling technology has kept pace with equipment densities and solutions are available today that not only provide the capacity to meet the today's requirements, but have the flexibility to adapt to the next ...

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 5

State of the blade: Report from the Server Blade Summit

GARDEN GROVE, Calif. -- Blade server advocates convened in Southern California last week to discuss the server density revolution. Industry representatives and IT pros examined the effect this fast-growing server form factor is going to have on the data center.
For more information:

Blades cutting a slightly larger share of server market

Perils and pluses of a single-vendor data center
   

Single vendor standardization
From the IT pros in attendance at this conference, one thing came across very clear: IT shops are standardizing on one platform for blades -- for better or worse.

Lance Ware, CEO and chief technology officer at Anaheim, Calif., digital media company SyncCast, said supporting a common hardware platform has made his job a lot easier to manage server inventory.

"It limits the number of spare [servers] we needed to have. It was very hard to keep spare parts before," Ware said. "It also minimizes the learning curve for someone on staff to bring others up to speed."

Ware downsized SyncCast's server footprint by a factor of 2 to 1 using Dell blades. The company has remote data centers in Asia and Europe where space is very limited, as well as a facility in Southern California.

"Certainly you're paying more [for blades] than 1U servers, but it's paid off for us," Ware said. But there are drawbacks.

Ware said blades often have a slower upgrade cycle than rack-mounted hardware. Plus, the reselling market is small for used blade servers. "There's not a lot of market for this stuff," Ware said. "It's pretty hard to move this equipment and makes transitioning more challenging for many companies."

Another complaint is that the internal Ethernet switches don't seem as robust as external switches from Cisco Systems Inc. and others.

When asked what he would have done differently, Ware said early adopters often paid the price of new technologies. He might have waited for the next generation of blades. "There were not a lot of choices two and a half years ago," Ware said. "I'm not sure if there was a better choice at the time."

Other attendees also specified on single-vendor platforms, including Kyle Ohme, director of IT at Freeze.com, a Waite Park, Minn.-based screensaver graphics company. Ohme said his organization standardized on all IBM BladeCenter offerings.

Craig Newell, director of utility computing at TranTech Inc., a consulting firm working on a consolidation project for the U.S. Census Bureau, said the Census Bureau standardized on two platforms, IBM's BladeCenter and blades from Marlborough, Mass.-based Egenera for the Census Bureau's higher performance applications.

State of the blade
According to Anil Vasudeva, president of Imex Research, blade servers will grow to 34% of all server shipments by 2009. During a keynote, Vasudeva said IBM is way ahead in market share at 39% with Hewlett-Packard Co. (HP) trailing at 32%. Dell Inc. has come out of nowhere at 9.7%, Fujitsu and NEC Solutions Inc. account for about 5% of the market. IBM also leads in technology choices with Intel and AMD power-based blades, as well as multiple operating systems, including Microsoft, AIX, Sun Solaris and Linux; and it also has three chassis offerings -- BladeCenter, BladeCenter T (telco and rugged deployments) and BladeCenter H (for high speed). Vasudeva said IBM is cheaper than HP on the average selling price and Dell is cheaper than both.

Speaking of pricing, attendees wanted to know why blades -- a smaller form factor --cost more than 1U servers. According to Doug Balog, vice president of blades for IBM, that is not a complete analysis. Balog said the true cost of deploying a 1U server needs to include redundant management, power, keyboard-video-mouse adapters and networking infrastructure. Balog said blades are a lot less expensive when you look at the total cost. Despite assurances of return on investment, attendees grumbled that it's the capital expenses that often drive decisions.

Big Blue was the 800-pound gorilla at the event with the other server vendors conspicuously absent, so IBM got to tout its vision for the forward deployment of blade servers. A big part of IBM's strategy for blades has to deal with getting them out of the data center and into retail stores, banks and other facilities that need compute power but don't have the skills or facilities to support a data center.

Applications for self-checkout, video surveillance, radio frequency identification, Voice over Internet Protocol and other data are demanding on-site servers. Companies can preconfigure these packages and roll them out while the technology is still fresh. It's a way to fit a lot of technology in one box, use one rollout scheme and one management to control it. There are still things that belong in the data center though, and it remains to be seen how these technologies are going to work out.

Blade servers = heavy metal
Almost every conversation I heard about blades inevitably turned to power and cooling. But something you hear less often is the problem with weight. Steve Wada, an IBM xSeries/BladeCenter technical sales guy, has been on the ground the last few years, meeting with customers and living in the real world. He was a pinch hitter at the conference, speaking for someone who couldn't attend, and he offered one of the most practical sessions I attended.

Wada told the cautionary tale of the University of New Mexico's high-performance computing center. It was built on the second floor of an old Cadillac dealership with offices below. A secretary noticed a crack in the ceiling above her desk from the massive weight of the blades above. Wada said the facility now has four jack bars holding up the second floor.

You can't cheat physics -- and according to Wada, a fully populated blade rack weighs nearly a ton. "It sounds silly until you can't do it. Most people run into the power and cooling issue first," Wada said. "Hopefully, you know what you bought [with a raised floor] and it's rated by a building standards code."

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 4

Re-engineering: A migration migraine

The re-engineering category of expenditures accounts for redesigning the network structure, retraining administration and support personnel, retraining users whose operating procedures will be slightly or completely affected, and (no less importantly) executing the migration plan.

Re-engineering redefines a company's entire concept of its core asset, information. This redefinition is not an upgrade; moreover, it is a paradigm substitution. Long-time Windows users—especially administrators—often fail to appreciate the realities of the world these other users hail from, and the depths of their rational skepticism toward any campaign, however well-meaning, to transplant them from a realm that, seemingly just yesterday, was characterized as ideal.

Think about the following key characteristics of re-engineering from the perspective of the prospective migrant:

    * In most NetWare environments, what a user has rights to is defined mainly by the password barriers restricting access to a storage device, then secondarily by the DOS-style attributes for the files stored on that device. In these environments, there is no clear statement or record of what any one particular user can or cannot do, based on who he is. So the concept of "importing profiles" fails to apply to that realm; one has no profile beyond the collective restrictions placed on her by the various storage devices and logical volumes. The issue here becomes "creating profiles." And, while the chapter for that topic in most Microsoft literature is generally shorter, that's because the topic is more about creating them than comprehending them and, more importantly, enforcing them.

    * The topology of older LANs was not designed for the rapid distribution of files or the centralization of resources, but instead for the facilitation of so-called "local data" and so-called "remote data." Sometimes the data that belongs to you (your spreadsheets, your documents) was on your own PC, while the "remote" server presented you with a consistent view of the company database, and a repository for those application components which can be centralized. Even the most performance-evolved networks that sprouted from this topology—which are still in use today in countless small businesses—maintains and even reinforces the archaic notions of local and remote data. So now that Windows Server 2003 has made a DNS topology economically viable for small businesses, it is no wonder that numerous trainees for this new realm actually start imagining such subdomain distinctions as \local and \remote for compartmentalizing company data in a familiar manner.

      NOTE
      Imagine an English-speaking person learning German for the first time, encountering a chapter in a textbook on the formation of infinitive-case verbs, without ever being told that all infinitives in German fall at the end of their sentences. We tend to consider the fundamentals of the realm we live and work in every day as though they were historically grounded, forgetting that any transition to a new set of fundamentals requires not only retraining but un-training, which generally takes longer.

    * The centralization of resources without respect to distance between storage devices or processors, made possible by the Internet-derived Domain Name System (DNS) adopted by Active Directory, enables a more function-oriented, less geographical approach to designating the roles of various hosts. One Microsoft server specialist calls this transition migration-by-role. The term has not caught on, but it should. It implies the possibility of a smooth absorption of authority from the various affiliates in the older network topology, to a domain of one or more processors that logically represents each function as a whole for the entire company. Only phased migration is a foreseeable strategy for such a process, where the company can focus on one absorption at a time. But even the smoothest technological strategies fail to take into account the subsequent delegation of personal authority over information resources that the older topology had spawned. Administration of applications, database facilities, and user policies has also been geographically distributed in companies that had adapted to the older technological structure. In such migrations, the job of re-engineering often crosses over from IT into Personnel.

    * Most Chief Information Officers view their business' most valuable asset to be their core business logic. To this day, international banking institutions retain their investment in decades-old mainframe "big iron" because, regardless of how many new flavors of Visual Studio .NET Microsoft invents every year, the next generation of that logic has yet to be created. Technologically speaking, it's feasible for a three-tier network to make mainframe logic available through middle-tier "blade" servers, and Windows Server 2003 is a leading candidate to run those servers. The first networked applications for LANs, although newer than "big iron" tasks, were based on mainframe processes. So in an era when the role of a PC's operating system was to provide the command line and let you occasionally run CHKDSK, the business application also managed the user. If there was such a thing as policy management, it took place on the application level. As a result, businesses that still have no choice but to retain their investment in older logic, end up replicating functionality such as user management (logins, permissions, time-stamps) even after the migration is completed. The changing role of the operating system fails to account for the obstinate role of older applications.

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 3

A blade server is a server chassis housing multiple thin, modular electronic circuit boards, known as server blades. Each blade is a server in its own right, often dedicated to a single application. The blades are literally servers on a card, containing processors, memory, integrated network controllers, an optional fiber channel host bus adaptor (HBA) and other input/output (IO) ports.

Ask your blade server questions at ITKnowledgeExchange.com

Blade servers allow more processing power in less rack space, simplifying cabling and reducing power consumption. According to a SearchWinSystems.com article on server technology, enterprises moving to blade servers can experience as much as an 85% reduction in cabling for blade installations over conventional 1U or tower servers. With so much less cabling, IT administrators can spend less time managing the infrastructure and more time ensuring high availability.

Each blade typically comes with one or two local ATA or SCSI drives. For additional storage, blade servers can connect to a storage pool facilitated by a network-attached storage (NAS), Fiber Channel, or iSCSI storage-area network (SAN). The advantage of blade servers comes not only from the consolidation benefits of housing several servers in a single chassis, but also from the consolidation of associated resources (like storage and networking equipment) into a smaller architecture that can be managed through a single interface.

A blade server is sometimes referred to as a high-density server and is typically used in a clustering of servers that are dedicated to a single task, such as:

    * File sharing
    * Web page serving and caching
    * SSL encrypting of Web communication
    * The transcoding of Web page content for smaller displays
    * Streaming audio and video content

Like most clustering applications, blade servers can also be managed to include load balancing and failover capabilities.

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 2

A blade server is a server chassis housing multiple thin, modular electronic circuit boards, known as server blades. Each blade is a server in its own right, often dedicated to a single application. The blades are literally servers on a card, containing processors, memory, integrated network controllers, an optional fiber channel host bus adaptor (HBA) and other input/output (IO) ports.

Ask your blade server questions at ITKnowledgeExchange.com

Blade servers allow more processing power in less rack space, simplifying cabling and reducing power consumption. According to a SearchWinSystems.com article on server technology, enterprises moving to blade servers can experience as much as an 85% reduction in cabling for blade installations over conventional 1U or tower servers. With so much less cabling, IT administrators can spend less time managing the infrastructure and more time ensuring high availability.

Each blade typically comes with one or two local ATA or SCSI drives. For additional storage, blade servers can connect to a storage pool facilitated by a network-attached storage (NAS), Fiber Channel, or iSCSI storage-area network (SAN). The advantage of blade servers comes not only from the consolidation benefits of housing several servers in a single chassis, but also from the consolidation of associated resources (like storage and networking equipment) into a smaller architecture that can be managed through a single interface.

A blade server is sometimes referred to as a high-density server and is typically used in a clustering of servers that are dedicated to a single task, such as:

    * File sharing
    * Web page serving and caching
    * SSL encrypting of Web communication
    * The transcoding of Web page content for smaller displays
    * Streaming audio and video content

Like most clustering applications, blade servers can also be managed to include load balancing and failover capabilities.

Quiz: Blade servers

ANSWER FOR 1

A server blade is a thin, modular electronic circuit board containing one, two, or more microprocessors and memory, that is intended for a single, dedicated application (such as serving Web pages) and that can be easily inserted into a blade server, which is a space-saving rack with many similar servers.

One product offering, for example, makes it possible to install up to 280 blade server modules vertically in multiple racks or rows of a single floor-standing cabinet. Blade servers, which share a common high-speed bus, are designed to create less heat and thus save energy costs as well as space.

Confusingly, individual blades are also sometimes referred to as "blade servers."

The Sidewinder X6 is a gaming keyboard worthy of standing up against Logitech's G15 - a long time favorite with enthusiasts.

plus:

Comfortable keys, Large volume and backlight dials, Swappable Numpad (doubles up as macro keys), Plenty of programmable macro keys, Aggressively priced, Killer looks.

minus:

Lack of USB ports.

Asus has added yet another netbook to their current Eee PC line-up for India. Asus announced Eee PC 904HA for the Indian market. We reported about the specifications of Eee PC 904 back in July.



With Eee PC 904HA, Asus promises to offer larger storage with a 160GB SATA HDD with 10GB Eee Storage online and longer battery life of up to 7 hours. This model will be available for Rs. 22,999.

The ASUS 904HA features an Intel Atom N270 processor and an 8.9-inch LED backlight display offering 1024 x 600 resolution. Not surprising, but again, this model of the Eee PC comes with a Windows XP operating system. By bundling a 160GB SATA HDD in this model, Asus plans to offer more storage. However, it would've been great if they could offer more storage in their Eee PC 1000H model for India.



Featuring the Super Hybrid Engine technology of Asus, the 6-cell battery promises 7 hours of battery life. The remaining features are similar to their other Eee PC models - a built-in 1.3 megapixel cam, a Mic, a WLAN (802.11 b/g), and a 1GB DDR2 RAM.

Interested folks can also check out Asus's Eee PC microsite for India.

Asus now has competitors like MSI, Lenovo, Acer, and others in the netbook market in India.

Samsung P3 PMP Breaks Cover

It took more than a year for Samsung to reveal YP-P2 PMP's successor. Now the buzz is that Samsung is ready with the upgraded version of P2 -- the P3.

Samsung P3 is almost identical to P2 but now its entire chassis is made of aluminum. It's also got storage upgrade, which now goes from 4GB to 32GB, widget-like user interface and haptic feedback. Haptic technology is nothing but a vibration when a user touches the screen to give him a feeling of tactile feedback.

Other features remain the same like the 3-inch WQVGA screen (480 x 272 pixels), Bluetooth with A2DP, DNSe 2.0 for audio playback enhancement, mono speaker, FM tuner and a microphone. The expected battery life is 30 hours for audio and around 5 hours for video.

The price or availability is still a mystery as Samsung is expected to make it official in CES next year. For the time being, all we can do is ogle at the pictures of the player.








Supported formats:
Audio: MP3/WMA/OGG/AAC/FLAC
Video: MPEG-4/WMV/H.264
Image: JPEG/BMP/PNG

What was intended to be a harmless software update turned out to be a hassle for many AVG users yesterday. Apparently, the virus scanner released yesterday contained an incorrect virus signature. The signature led to a user alert about a Trojan in the critical Windows system file user32.dll. The Trojan, PSW.Banker4.APSA or Generic9TBN was mistakenly identified as being infecting the system file. The scanner then advised users to delete this file. Doing so caused Windows to crash and go in to a reboot cycle.

Users with the latest and previous versions of AVG were equally affected. However, the issue was noticed only with systems using Windows XP. AVG has since then issued a patch, which corrects this problem. For people who have been affected by this please visit the AVG support forums for help wit the fix. There are separate sections for users with AVG 7.5 and AVG 8.0.

AVG has also issued an announcement apologizing users for the inconvenience caused which says, "Affected users unable to use their PCs should contact their AVG reseller or ask a friend to download the information and fix tool for them. After running the fix tool, users should run the AVG update program to download and install the correct AVG update. AVG sincerely regrets the inconvenience users have experienced. We are working to remedy the problem and ensure that any other potential vulnerabilities are identified and eliminated before they can impact users."

AVG is a popular free antivirus suite and is known for its dedicated user base.

It's official folks. Sony Ericsson's latest and possibly greatest handset, their Windows Mobile 6.1 enabled Xperia X1 is due for launch on November 28th 2008 - that's in a couple of weeks. Of course it's initially launching in the US so it'll be a little while before it gets here.

"The Xperia X1 continues the Sony Ericsson tradition of delivering the highest quality experiences and the most advanced technology available today," said Karen Morris, vice president of marketing, Sony Ericsson North America. "The most exciting scenarios enabled by the Xperia X1 will be created by consumers - enabling them to customize and personalize their device and content to fit their lifestyle and personality."



The Xperia X1's unique panel user interface is at the heart of the device's ability to create and adapt consumers' personal choices. With up to 9 panels, it's easy to find and enjoy the information and entertainment content they want. Sony Ericsson is busy working with third-party developers to create a wealth of new applications and new panels that will soon be available for download.

"Windows Mobile gives people the ability to easily navigate between their business and personal lives," said Todd Peters, vice president of marketing, Mobile Communications Business, Microsoft. "The panel user interface found only in the Xperia X1 is bringing unique experiences to consumers who want more from their converged devices."




As Sony Ericsson's most advanced phone to date, the Xperia X1 brings together a large, 3-inch wide VGA display touchscreen and a full QWERTY keyboard all wrapped into a sleek silver metal-finished arc slider handset. The Xperia X1 supports 3G networks, enabling audio and video streaming, high-speed internet surfing, multimedia messaging and email on the go. In addition to delivering 3G mobile broadband speeds, the Xperia X1 supports Wi-Fi to meet the needs of consumers' always connected lifestyles. In the tradition of Sony Ericsson, the Xperia X1 also offers a 3.2 megapixel camera, video streaming, video playback and video recording, and the ability to enjoy all their digital music.

"The Xperia X1 complements Sony Electronics' family of Windows-based devices and leverages the company's heritage of providing beautifully designed, highly functional, portable electronics," said John Kodera, vice president of product marketing, Sony Electronics. "The Xperia X1 delivers the highest quality entertainment, communication and personalization options for consumers."




The Xperia X1 will be available unlocked through Sony Electronics and its authorized retailers. Pre-orders of the Xperia X1 will be available through the Sony Style Web site at www.sonystyle.com beginning today. This premium device will be sold unlocked for an MSRP of Rs. 39, 119 ($799.99), giving consumers the freedom to choose their own mobile operator and data plan.

It seems like HTC was not content with being the first to introduce a handset with the Android OS (G1) or a full touch screen handset with a WVGA resolution in their HTC Touch HD. They apparently are looking to be a very dominant company when it comes to setting a bar. Their latest is the worlds first handset to incorporate an integration of GSM and WiMAX technology in a single handset called the HTC MAX 4G for the Russian provider of Mobile WiMAX Scartel (brand Yota).



With its 3.8 inch, 800×480 pixel resolution display and 8 Gigs of internal memory running on a Windows Mobile 6.1 OS, the handset will give users a lot more than they bargained for. Other features include TV out capability, VoIP, a 3.5mm earphone socket for the handsfree and of course HTC's TouchFLO 3D UI.



As of now it's going to be out only in Russia considering their WiMAX capabilities so it just might be a while before it gets here. In the meantime there's plenty more we can expect from the company like the HTC HD Touch PRO and more importantly the G1.

New Laser Method Reproduces Art Masterworks To Protein Patterns

Canadian researchers have created a new protein patterning technique that's enabled them to reproduce complex cellular environments and a miniature version of a masterpiece painting.

According to a new study published in the journal Lab on a Chip, scientists from Université de Montréal, the Maisonneuve-Rosemont Hospital Research Centre, McGill University and the Montreal Neurological Institute have developed a laser technology that can mimic the protein patterns that surround cells in vivo and that could lead to great advances in neuroscience.

To illustrate the precision of their protein patterning technique, the research team reproduced a masterwork of Dutch painter Johannes Vermeer, specifically Girl with a Pearl Earring, in the miniature dimension of 200 microns wide or about the thickness of two hairs. The researchers also used their novel technology to replicate the brain's complex cellular environment. It's a major discovery, since the new laser technology can encourage and guide the growth of finicky nerve cells.

"We have created a system that can fabricate complex methods to grow cells," says Santiago Costantino, the study's lead author and a scientist at the Université de Montréal and Maisonneuve-Rosemont Hospital Research Centre.

"We see this technique as being very relevant to neuroscience and immunology research. With this system, we laid down a chemical gradient to guide the growth of nerve fiber, which is very useful in studying nerve damage and repair."

Flexible and precise

Using laser-assisted protein adsorption by photobleaching (LAPAP), the scientific team bound fluorescently-tagged molecules to a glass slides and created patterns of proteins similar to those of the human body. They then demonstrated how flexible and precise this technique could be by reproducing a fluorescent micro version of Girl With a Pearl Earring.

"The flexibility, precision and ease of this technique will hopefully lead to increased access in protein patterning, which could lead to major advances in science," says Dr. Costantino, who is also a member of the BioFemtoVision Canadian Research Group, which includes researchers from the Université de Montréal and the Institut National de la Recherche Scientifique who are working on developing new laser technologies for vision science.

"Our next goal is to extend laser-assisted protein adsorption by photobleaching to fabricate more complex protein combinations and distributions," adds Dr. Costantino. "We want to improve our imitation of the chemical environment found in the early stages of developing organisms."

This study was funded through grants from the Natural Science and Engineering Council of Canada, the Fonds québécois de la recherche sur la nature et les technologies, Canadian Institutes of Health Research and the Fonds de la recherche en santé du Québec.

Building on the success of the E71, Nokia has announced the latest addition to its Eseries range, the Nokia E63.




"Our research shows that people want a device that deals with both their personal and professional lives, but helps them to separate the two. When someone sits down at lunch, they want to update their social network or browse their personal email account and they don't want work getting in the way of that. It's another great case of technology adapting to the people that use it," says Soren Petersen, Senior Vice President, Nokia. "The Nokia E63 is a new proposition for Eseries - a messaging device where people will be just as involved in their social network as they are in their business network."

The Nokia E63 can switch modes with a single key press, switching from a view of corporate mail, appointments and intranet data, to a personal mode with a picture of friends, personal email and shortcuts to favorite hobby blogs or websites. Petersen adds, "The amazing response we have seen to the Nokia E71, which has very quickly become the best selling model in its category, let us know that we are heading in the right direction. People want a rich experience when using messaging, social networks and the Internet. With the Nokia E63 you can enjoy the web, update your status and work meaningfully with multiple email accounts."

The Nokia E63 also includes Files on Ovi, a service where people can get remote access to their PC files even when their computer is offline. Anyone buying the handset will have access to 1GB of online file storage for free.

The Nokia E63 will be available in ruby red or ultramarine blue with a range of multimedia features.  Record and view images and videos with the digital camera and bright landscape display, listen to music downloaded from the Nokia Music Store, or a number of other sources, via the standard 3,5 mm audio jack or customize the device through the thousands of applications available for download.

The Nokia E63 is expected to begin shipping in the coming weeks for an estimated retail price of EUR 199, before taxes and subsidies.

Quiz: Workstations

1. This is a feature included in Microsoft's Windows 2000 serverthat allows network administrators to install the Windows 2000 Professionaloperating system and its upgrades to any number of workstations atone time from a centralized location.
a. ATX
b. CPI
c. RIS
d. CPU
e. ALU

2. This feature is useful for downloading software updates or reconfiguringcomputers during late-night hours when a company's computers are usually turned off.
a. firmware
b. virtual keyboard
c. standby power
d. remote wakeup
e. Power-On Self-Test

3. On a workstation, this is a customized graphical user inferface (GUI).
a. eye candy
b. desktop theme
c. desktop management interface
d. personal home page
e. chip art

4. In the Windows 2000 operating system, this is a collection of settingsthat define what a system will look like and how it will behave for a selectgroup of users.
a. Group Policy Object
b. ASSP
c. impression
d. CISC
e. instantiation

5. This is the detailed recording and updating of information that describesan enterprise's computer systems and networks, including all workstationsand their hardware and software components.
a. master boot record
b. boilerplate
c. configuration management
d. conversational monitor system
e. access log

6. This product from Symantec can clone (copy) the entire contents ofa hard disk to another computer's hard disk, automatically formatting andpartitioning the target workstation.
a. ghost
b. port replicator
c. carbon copy
d. e-copy
e. hologram

7. This is a program that emulates the Windows OS on a Macintosh computer.
a. iMac
b. Darwin
c. fat MAC
d. virtual PC
e. crippleware

8. In a Windows NT environment, what the user sees on his or her workstation, as well as what files, applications and directories they have accessto, is determined by how the network administrator has set up this.
a. user profile
b. hardware abstraction layer
c. LANDesk Client Manager
d. InstallShield
e. localization

9. This management tool can be used in a classroom system where one PC becomes the "master" of student computers, automatically reconfiguring them or turning them off at night.
a. big-endian and little-endian
b. remote-control software
c. reconfigurable processor
d. Voodoo
e. distributed file system

10. This is an open source graphical desktop environment for UNIX workstations.
a. Bourne shell
b. OpenCourseWare
c. Red Hat
d. Visual InterDev
e. K Desktop Environment

Quiz: Servers

1. This is a computer with a Web server that serves the pages for one or more Web sites.
a. portal
b. host
c. gateway
d. business service provider
e. backbone

2. This is a variable value (for example, a "last modified" date) that a server can include in an HTML file before it sends it to the requestor.
a. end effector
b. data set
c. active server page
d. server-side include
e. instruction

3. This is a computer containing programs that collectively serve the needs of a large group rather than that of a single user or specialized application.
a. terminal server
b. Web server
c. central processing unit
d. enterprise server
e. complex instruction set computer

4. This is when you divide work that a server has to do between two or more computers so that more work gets done in the same amount of time and, in general, all users get served faster.
a. fast packet technology
b. cache coherence
c. multi-carrier modulation
d. load balancing
e. time-division multiplexing

5. This is a freely available Web server that is distributed under an open source license.
a. Apache
b. Linux
c. GNU
d. Open Service Gateway Initiative
e. Unix

6. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user.
a. interrupt request
b. Forward DNS lookup
c. data-link layer
d. File Transfer Protocol
e. common gateway interface

7. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.
a. channel bank
b. cluster
c. tiger team
d. serverless backup
e. logical unit

8. This is a server that saves Web pages that users have requested so that successive requests for these pages do not require the use of the Internet.
a. dedicated server
b. virtual server
c. Domino Off-Line Services
d. Object Request Broker
e. cache server

9. This is a microprocessor based on the 64-bit architecture known as IA-64.
a. TiVo
b. UPnP
c. Itanium
d. EPIC
e. InfiniBand

10. This is the delivery of information on the Web that is initiated by the information server rather than by the information user or client, as it usually is.
a. content delivery
b. go bosh
c. push
d. hypermedia
e. spamdexing

Networking News

Do you speak 'router' geek?

Are you a real Know-IT-All? This week a challenge you to find out. Ten hints for ten terms in our glossary that relate to routers. How many can you guess without peeking?

1. This is network bridge and a router combined in a single product.

2. Routing is a function associated with this layer in the standard model of network programming, the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

3. This device routes data packets between one or more LANs and an ATM backbone network.

4. Using an appropriate algorithm, this tells a switching device what to do with the multicast packet.

5. This forwards packets to computer hosts within a network (but not between networks).

6. This protocol allows host computers on the Internet to use multiple routers that act as a single virtual router, maintaining connectivity even if the first hop router fails.

7. If you're this kind of Cisco expert, you'll specialize in routing and switching, communications and services, security, or voice systems and technologies.

8. Sometimes this layer 2 device is confused with a router.

9. Routers use this table to control access to or from the router for a number of services.

10. This authentication protocol provides remote access authentication and related services, such as event logging.

Quiz: Recycling electronic equipment

Get with the program! The recycling of electronics is only going to get more important going forward. Take quiz to find out how much you know about e-cycling and related terms.

1. How many computers were replaced, worldwide, in the years between 2004-2006?
a. 1-2 million
b. 4-6 million
c. 7-8 million

2. When you delete a file from your hard drive, can its data still be accessed?

3. To provide a minimal level of security, what process should the average user perform before recycling their computer? Hint: It will make the user's data harder to access, because it essentially erases everything from the hard drive.

4. This is a device that physically destroys a hard drive to make absolutely sure that data cannot be accessed. What is it?

5. Toxic substances lurk inside many computers. Which of the following is commonly found?
a. lead
b. mercury
c. cobalt
d. all of the above

6. The EPA has established a disposal limit for hazardous waste, including computer equipment. What is that limit?
a. 50 kilograms, the equivalent of 2-3 RAID arrays
b. 100 kilograms, the equivalent of 4-6 RAID arrays
c. 150 kilograms, the equivalent of 6-9 RAID arrays

7. This term means to renew or restore to a new condition and/or appearance. In computers, it usually refers to fixing or replacing components that don't work. What is it?

8. This is the practice of looking for discarded treasure, such as computer components and personal information, in large trash containers. What is it?

9. In a court of law, this is the application of computer investigation and analysis techniques to recover evidence from a computer's hard drive. What is it?

10. This describes the environmentally unfriendly process of losing your temper and discarding hardware, such as a cell phone, by violent means, such as hurling it out a window, against a wall, or into a body of water. What is it?

Quiz: Printers and printing

How much do you know about printers and related technology? Take quiz to find out!

1. This term is what P.S. stands for on a letter. It's also the name of a programming language that describes the appearance of a printed page.
What is it?

2. This printing method, which creates raised and colored areas on paper, is often seen in wedding invitations, business cards and letterheads.
What is it?

3. Which of the following is the oldest form of printing:
a. gravure
b. flexography
c. letterpress
d. screen printing

4. In printing, DPI is the standard measure of printed image quality on the paper.
What does DPI stand for?

5. Engineers at IBM, Kodak, General Electric and RCA turned the inventor of this copying technology away, saying his idea for using electrostatic charges was useless. What is it?

6. Printers are generally classified as "impact" and "non-impact." Which category does a laser printer fall into?

7. Also known as serigraphy, this printing method creates an image on paper, fabric or some other object by pressing ink through a screen with areas blocked off by a stencil.

8. A WYSIWYG editor or program allows a developer to see what the end result will look like while the interface or document is being created. The letters stand for a common saying. (Hint: It's also the title of a Flip Wilson biography.)
What does WYSIWYG stand for?

9. Which of the following is a blanket term that includes such technologies as scanning, photography, xerography and digital printing:
a. biomimetics
b. reprographics
c. pictograph
d. telemetry

10. When a document is "spooled," it's read and saved to be printed when prior documents have been printed. Is "spool" short for anything?

Quiz: Networking Hardware

Those parts of the system that you can hit with a hammer are called hardware; those program instructions that you can only curse at are called software. - Anonymous

This week's quiz has a slightly different format. Your goal will be to match the correct term in bottom of the page with its description in top of the page

1._____ This is any computer device that is not partof the essential computer but is situated relatively close by.

2. _____This is a larger transmission line that carriesdata gathered from smaller lines that interconnect with it.

3._____ This is a computer circuit board or card thatis installed in a computer so that it can be connected to a network.

4._____ On a network, this is your computer's unique hardwarenumber.

5. _____This is the ordinary copper wire that connectshome and many business computers to the telephone company.

6. _____This is a physical device that can pass packetsbetween a legacy application type network (such as an Ethernet) and an ATM network by using data link layer and Network layer information.

7._____This consists of three layers of a semiconductormaterial, each capable of carrying a current.

8._____This is a device or, in some cases, software ina computer, that determines the next network point to which a packet shouldbe forwarded toward its destination.

9._____This is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the computer's basic circuitry and components.

10.____This is a device that receives a signal onan electromagnetic or optical transmission medium, amplifies the signal,and then retransmits it along the next leg of the medium.

a) backbone
b) circuit
c) transistor
d) bus
e) twisted pair
f) trunk
g) coaxial cable
h) chip
i) interface device
j) motherboard
k) edge device
l) transponder
m) satellite
n) beep code
o) NIC
p) router
q) MAC address
r) repeater
s) peripheral
t) port number
u) acoustic coupler
v) physical unit
w) modem
x) LAN server
y) slot
z) surge suppressor

Quiz: Mainframe Acronym-o-phobia

Acronyms abound in the mainframe world. Words like CICS and MIPS get thrown around every day -- but do you know exactly what they mean? This quiz will test your mainframe acronym acumen. Just click on the hyperlink after the four possible answers to learn the whether you're correct or not. Enjoy!
 
  What does EBCDIC stand for?

    * A) Extended Binary Code Decimal Interchange Control
    * B) Extended Binary Control Decimal Interchange Code
    * C) Easy But Concise Decimal Information Counter
    * D) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

Think you know the answer?  Read the definition for EBCDIC.

  What does CICS stand for as in "Joe Smith develops CICS applications for mainframes."

    * A) Customer Information Control System
    * B) Customer Interface Control System
    * C) Central Information Control System
    * D) Computing Instructions Control System

Think you know the answer?  Read the definition for CICS.

  What does DASD stand for?

    * A) Data Systems Authorization Directory
    * B) Digital's Attempted Storage Domination
    * C) Data Systems Storage Device
    * D) Direct Access Storage Device

Think you know the answer?  Read the definition for DASD.

  What does IMS stand for?

    * A) IBM's Management Scenario
    * B) Infrastructure Managed Services
    * C) Initially Managed Storage
    * D) Information Management System

Think you know the answer?  Read the definition of IMS.

  What does RACF stand for?

    * A) Remote Access Computing Facility
    * B) Resource Allocation Control Facility
    * C) Really Alarming Computing Fact
    * D) Resource Access Control Facility

Think you know the answer?  Read the definition for RACF.

  What does MIPS stand for?

    * A) Multiple Instructions Per Session
    * B) Million Instructions Per Second
    * C) Meaningless Indicator of Processor Speed
    * D) Many Important Selling Points

Think you know the answer?  Read the definition for MIPS here.

  What does MVS stand for?

    * A) Multiple Virtual Storage
    * B) Mainframe Virtual System
    * C) Mainframe Virtualization System
    * D) Multiple Virtualization System

Think you know the answer?  Read the definition for MVS here.

  What does Rexx stand for?

    * A) Reactive Enforcement Execution Exchange language
    * B) Reactived Extendable Exchange language
    * C) Restructured Extended Executor language
    * D) None of the above

Think you know the answer? Read the definition for Rexx here.

  What does zAAP stand for?

    * A) Zippy Application Assessment Program
    * B) zSeries Assistance and Assessment Protocol
    * C) zSeries Application Assessment Protocol
    * D) zSeries Application Assist Processor

Think you know the answer? Learn what zAAP stands for at IBM.com.



  Everyone knows IBM stands for "International Business Machine" but what does the BMC in BMC Software come from?

    * A) Business Management and Control
    * B) Binding Mainframes and Commerce
    * C) Building Mainframe Control
    * D) None of the above -- BMC Software was named after its founders: Scott Boulett , John Moores and Dan Cloer.

Quiz: Laptops

1. This technology is used in the liquid crystal displays of notebook and laptop computers to provide a more responsive image at a wider range of viewing angle.
a. graphics accelerator
b. Zoopraxiscope
c. photonic switching
d. active matrix display
e. bi-level image s

2. This is a hardware frame and set of electrical connection interfaces that enables a notebook computer to effectively serve as a desktop computer.
a. virtual PC
b. intermediate distribution frame
c. docking station
d. brain-machine interface
e. caddy

3. This is a credit card-size input/output device used to connect a laptop computer to a LAN.
a. PCMCIA card
b. capacitor
c. network PC
d. flexible transistor
e. smart card

4. This feature allows a laptop user to replace one external drive with another without having to shut down and reboot.
a. jam sync
b. mean-swap-between-failure
c. crossfade
d. heatsink
e. hot swap

5. This is an attachment for a notebook computer that allows a number of devices such as a printer, large monitor, and keyboard to be simultaneously connected.
a. connectoid
b. port replicator
c. exponential assembly
d. Centronics parallel interface
e. ZIF socket

6. This is a technology that supports the delivery of full-screen motion video and multimedia to notebook computers.
a. megatransfer
b. iButton
c. fat MAC
d. Multimedia Home Platform
e. Zoomed Video

7. This is electrical power that a laptop consumes when it is connected to a power source and is ready to be used -- but is not actually being used.
a. standby
b. apparent power
c. wait state
d. latency
e. capacity on demand

8. Laptop + wireless Ethernet card + automobile =
a. Mobile IP
b. FUBAR
c. European Computer Driving License
d. war driving
e. artificial passenger

9. This presention software comes with a variety of templates that enable a laptop user to quickly create a sophisticated slide show presentation.
a. Flash
b. PowerPoint
c. Voodoo
d. UART
e. PICTIVE

10. This light-weight power source for laptops consists of an anode, a cathode, and an electrolyte.
a. Crusoe
b. Advanced Configuration and Power Interface
c. G.lite
d. Universal Plug and Play
e. Lithium Ion battery