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Microprocessors and Microcontrollers ECE
BRANCH : ECE                 YEAR/SEM : III / V

PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What are EI & DI instructions of 8085?
2. What is ALE?
3. Define stack.
4. What do you mean by input port & output port?
5. List the flags of 8085.
PART - B (16 Marks)

1. Draw & explain the architecture of 8085 microprocessor    (16)
2. Draw the Pin Diagram of 8085 and explain the function of various signals (16)
3. Explain the instruction classification & instruction sets    (16)
4. Write a program to sort the numbers in ascending and descending order. (16)
5. Draw the timing diagram of the following Instructions    (16)

PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What are the types of serial data communication?
2. What is baud rate?
3. What is USART?
4. List the Software and Hardware interrupts of 8085?
5. What are the features of 8279?
6. List some of the features of INTEL 8259 (Programmable Interrupt Controller)
7. What are the control words of 8251A and what are its functions?

PART - B (16 Marks)

1. With neat sketch explain the functions of 8255 PPI.    (16)
2. With neat sketch explain the functions of 8251.     (16)
3. With neat sketch explain the function of DMA controller.   (16)
4. With neat sketch explain the function of Programmable Interrupt Controller. (16)
5. With neat sketch explain the function of Keyboard and display controller. (16)
6. With neat sketch explain the function of A/D converter.    (16)
7 With neat sketch explain the function of D/A converter.    (16)

PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What is addressing?
2. What are the modes in which 8086 can operate?
3. List the segment registers of 8086.
4. What are the Index registers of 8086?
5. What is NMI?
6. What are the flags of 8086?
PART - B (16 Marks)
1. Draw the architectural block diagram of 8086.                                                         (16)
2. Explain with examples addressing modes of 8086 processor.                                    (16)
3. Draw & explain the modes of operation of 8086.                 (16)
4. Explain the instruction set of 8086 with examples.                                           (16)

PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What is a Microcontroller?
2. What is the difference between microprocessor & microcontroller?
3. List the addressing modes of 8051.
4. Explain the instructions used to access external RAM.
5. List the features of 8051 microcontroller.
6. Explain the interrupts of 8051 microcontroller
PART - B (16 Marks)
1.With neat sketch explain the architecture of 8051 microcontroller.  (16)
2. Draw the Pin Diagram of 8051 and explain the function of various signals. (16)
3. List the various Instructions available in 8051 microcontroller.   (16)
4. Explain the memory structure of 8051       (16)
5. Explain the I/O port structure of 8051.       (16)
6. Draw the pin configuration of 8051, explain each pin.    (16)


PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What is the function of program counter in 8051?
2. Write about the jump statement?
3. Write about CALL statement in 8051.
4. Explain the operating mode0 of 8051 serial ports
5. Explain the operating mode2 of 8051 serial ports.
6. Explain the mode3 of 8051 serial ports.
PART - B (16 Marks)
1. Explain the instruction set of 8051.                     (16)
2. Draw the format of SCON register. Explain different bits in it.                                    (16)
3. Write an assembly language program to find "Fibonacci Series" of "N" given term.  (16)
4. Write an assembly language program for stepper motor control.                                  (16)
5. Explain the interfacing concept  of keyboard  with 8051.                                             (16)
6. Explain the interfacing concept of ADC &  DAC  with controller.                              (16)

GE2211 Environmental Science and Engineering question bank anna university

Subject Code : GE2211
Subject Name : Environmental Science and Engineering



1. Define Environmental Science.
2. What is meant by deforestation?
3. State the environmental effects of extracting & using mineral resources.
4. State the need for public awareness for solving environmental problems.
5. What is geothermal energy?
6. State any two problems caused by the construction of dams.
7. Write any two functions of forest.
8. What are the advantages of conjunctive uses of water?
9. Define environmental impact statement.
10. What is soil fertility?
11. Explain soil leaching.
12. What is soil erosion? How can it be controlled?
13. Define desertification.
14. Define Overgrazing. What are the effects of overgrazing?
15. Distinguish between water logging & Salinity.

PART - B (16 marks)

1. Explain Renewable & non-Renewable energy resources with examples. (16)

2. (a) Compare nuclear power with coal. (6) (b) Write a note on energy conservation. (4)
© What is Solar Space heating? Explain (6)

3. (a) What are the causes of soil erosion & deforestation? Explain in detail (8)
(b) Discuss the consequences of overdrawing surface and Ground water. (8)

4. a)Write briefly on any four alternate source of energy (8)
b) Explain effects of construction of dam on tribal people (8)

5. (a) Write the effects of extracting and using mineral resources. (4)
(b) Explain the scope & importance of Environment. (8)
© Enumerate the benefits & draw backs of building of dams. (4)

6. (a) What are the effects of modern Agriculture? (8)
(b) Discuss the causes of land degradation. (8)



1. Define Producers.
2. Name the four ecosystems.
3. What is Ecological succession?
4. What are food chain & food Webs?
5. What is the classification of biotic component of ecosystems?
6. Define Biodiversity.
7. What are the advantages& disadvantages of in-situ& ex-situ conservation of biodiversity?
8. Enumerate the human activities which destroy the biodiversity.
9. Write note on endemic species.
10. Define Biosphere.
11. Define consumers & Classify them.
12. What is Biomes? Give Examples.
13. Define Estuaries.
14. Define poaching.
15. Define Species & Genetic diversity.


1. (a) What is an ecosystem? Describe the structure & function of various components of an ecosystem. (10)
(b) Explain the various threats to biodiversity. (6)

2. (a) Define Ecological pyramids and explain different types of ecological pyramids. (6)
(b) Describe the types, characteristics features, structure& function of
i). Forest ecosystem ii). Aquatic ecosystem (10)

3. (a) Explain In-Situ & Ex-Situ Conservation of Biodiversity (8)
(b) What is meant by value of biodiversity? Explain different values of biodiversity (8)

4. Write briefly on
1. Ecological succession
2. Energy flow through an ecosystem
3. Hot spots of biodiversity ( 4+4+8)

5. (a) What is the biodiversity what are the reasons for decline for biodiversity (10)
(b) Write short notes on: (1) Producers (2) Consumers (3) Decomposers (3 X 2 = 6)


1. Define pollution.
2. Name any four air pollutants, and their sources and impacts.
3. What are point and non-point sources of water pollution?
4. Define hazardous wastes.
5. Write any four major water pollutants.
6. Define photochemical smog.
7. Define floods.
8. Define disasters
9. Write any two causes of soil pollution.
10. Define noise pollution.
11. When a sound causes noise pollution.
12. What are the types of solid waste?

1 (a).Discuss the major air pollutants and their impacts. (8)
(b) Explain the various methods of controlling air pollution. (8)

2. (a) Discuss briefly the disposal of Municipal solid waste management. (8)
(b) Explain the causes, effects and control measures of water pollution. (8)

3. (a) Discuss major air pollutants and their impacts. (6)
(b) What is Thermal pollution and explain their impacts? (6).
©What are the sources of radioactive pollution? (4)

4. (a) Explain in detail the role of individual in conservation of natural resources. (8)
(b).Explain the effects nuclear and Radiation pollution. (8)

5. (a) Write a brief note on of thermal pollution. (6)
(b) Discuss the causes, effects & control measures of marine pollution. (10)


1. What are the causes and effects of global warming?
2. What are causes and effects of ozone layer depletion?
3. What is acid rain?
4. Explain the term sustainable development.
5. Define resettlement and rehabilitation.
6. Write note on climate change.
7. Explain green house effect.
8. Write reason for wetland reclamation.
9. Write any four effects of climate change.
10. What is watershed management?


1. (a) Explain forest conservation act.. (8)
(b) Write the factors influence the unsustainable to sustainable development. . (8)

2. (a) Explain nuclear accidents and holocaust. . (8)
(b) Write notes on global warming. . (8)

3. (a) Write a note on watershed management. (4)
(b) Write briefly Bhopal disaster and Chernobyl disaster. (8)
© Discuss briefly on environment protection act 1986. (4)

4. (a) Discuss the agenda for sustainable development (8)
(b) Write briefly on nuclear accidents (8)

5. Write briefly on
a. Green House Effect (4) b. Acid Rain (4) c. Rain water Harvesting (6) d. Climate Change (2)


1. Define Population explosion
2. Define ZPG (Zero Population Growth)
3. Briefly account on human rights.
4. Define Population equilibrium
5. Explain total fertility rate
6. Define population equation
7. State how environment and human health are related
8. State the role of information technology in environment.
9. List the problems of population growth.
10. What is AIDS? How to prevent it?


1. (a) Explain the role of IT in environment and human health. (12)
(b) Write short note on Value Education (4)

2. (a) Write briefly on implementation of family planning programme. (6)
(b) Write a note on AIDS in developing country (4)
© Discuss the factors influencing the family size (6)

3. (a) Population explosion affects the environment seriously - discuss. (8) (b) Deterioration of environment leads to deterioration of human health - Justify(8)

4. (a) Write a note on the following in relation to human population & environment
i). Woman Child Welfare. (4)
ii). Human Rights. (4)

(b) Write briefly on:
i) Population momentum. (4)
ii) Population Profile. (4)

5. (a) Discuss the growth of population can be successfully implemented . (6)
(b) Discuss the factors influencing the family size. (4)
© Discuss on the steps taken in India to prevent AIDS. (6)
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2013 Examination Results

HSC March 2013 Examination Results Expected on 9th May 2013.

All the best for students...

Official Release in this Link  -   www.tnresults.nic.in

Mercedes-Benz GLA Class concept car

Mercedes has unveiled its mini-SUV, the GLA Class concept

The interior images reveal an SUV with modern futuristic touches and upholstery done in beige. The dashboard scheme though looks a tad similar to the new A-Class.

The interior images reveal an SUV with modern futuristic touches and upholstery done in beige.

255/45 section rubber wrapped on 20-inch wheels and muscular wheel arches define the side profile. Notably, there are LED lights on the roof rails.
Questions :

1. The earliest evidence of silver in India is found in the
Harappan culture
Chalcolithic cultures of Western India
Vedic texts
silver punch-marked coins

2. The Hunter Commission was appointed after the
Black-hole incident
Jalianwallabah massacre
Uprising of 1857
Partition of Bengal

3. The historian Barani refused to consider the state in India under Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because
the majority of the population did not follow Islam
the Muslim theologists were often disregarded
the Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing his own regulations
religious freedom was accorded to non-Muslims

4. The last opportunity to avoid the partition of India was lost with the rejection of
Cripps Mission
Rajagopalachari Formula
Cabinet Mission
Wavell Plan

5. Assertion [A] : The effect of labour participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge of the early 1930s was weak. Reason [R] : The labour leaders considered the ideology of Indian National Congress as bourgeois and reactionary.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true

6. Assertion [A] : Muhammad bin Tughlaq left Delhi, and, for two years lived in a camp called Swarga-dwari. Reason [R] : At that time, Delhi was revaged by a form of plague and many people died.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true

7. At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of British India came forward with a plan for a united and independent existence?

8. While delivering the presidential address, the Congress President who advocated the introduction of Roman script for Hindi language was
Mahatma Gandhi
Jawaharlal Nehru
Abul Kalam Azad
Subhash Chandra Bose

9. The Raga which is sung early in the morning is

10. Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress 1. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the Congress. 2. C. R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of the Congress 3. The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was Alan Octavian Hume 4. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894 Which of the statements are correct?
1 and 3
2 and 4
2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
Questions :

1. Which one of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one State in India?

2. The Palk Bay lies between.
Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat.
Gulf fo Mannar and Bay of Bengal.
Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

3. Which one of the following areas of India produces largest amount of cotton?
North western India and Gangetic West Bengal
North western and western India
Western and southern India
Plains of northern India

4. Local supply of coal is not available to
TISCO, Jamshedpur
VSL, Bhadravat
HSL, Durgapur
HSL, Bhila

5. "From Aceh in the far north west to Torres Strait in the east is 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghdad. The archipelago has 14,000 islands, some mere equatorial rocks, others some of the largest in the world." This description best fits
West Indies

6. Which one of the following is cultivated by transplanting seedlings?

7. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Teak : Jammu and Kashmir
Deodar : Madhya Pradesh
Sandalwood : Kerala
Sundari : West Bengal

8. The canal-carrying capacity of Farrakka is
75,000 Cusecs
70,000 Cusecs
40,000 Cusecs
35,000 Cusecs

9. Which one of the following factors is reponsible for the change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean?
Indian Ocean is 'half an ocean
Indian Ocean has Monsoon drift
Indian Ocean is a land-locked ocean
Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity

10. Consider the following natural phenimena : 1. Terrestrial heating 2. Reflection of light 3. Refraction of light 4. Diffraction of light Due to which of these phenomena is mirage formed?
1 and 2
2, 3 and 4
1 and 3
4 only

1.      In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found ?

            (a)        Nilgiri Hills

            (b)        Nicobar Islands

            (c)        Spiti Valley

            (d)        Lakshadweep Islands

            ANSWER (B)

2.      Consider the following statements :

            1.         The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President ot India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.

            2.         As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (D)

3.      In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following:

            (a)        Calcutta

            (b)        Madras

            (c)        Bombay

            (d)        Delhi

            ANSWER (B)


4.      With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:

            1.         An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a degree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.

            2.         Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (A)


5.      With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:

            1.         The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.

            2.         The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (D)

6.      Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen   percent   of  the   total   number   of

            (a)        90th

            (b)        91st

            (c)        92nd

            (d)        93rd

            ANSWER (B)


7.  Consider the following statements :

            1.         Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri.

            2.         The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)   Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (B)


8.      With    reference    to    Union    Government, consider the following statements :

            1.         The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.

            2.         The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (A)


9.      Consider the following statements:

            1.         The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour.

            2.         The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (C)


10.      Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety ?

            (a)        Ministry of Science and Technology

            (b)        Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

            (c)        Ministry of Environment and Forests

            (d)        Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

            ANSWER (C)

1.      Which one of the following pairs of countries fought wars over a region called Ogaden ?

            (a)        Eritrea and Sudan

            (b)        Ethiopia and Somalia

            (c)        Kenya and Somalia

            (d)        Ethiopia and Sudan

            ANSWER (B)

2.      In the middle of the year 2008 the Parliament of which one of the following countries became the first in the world to enact a Climate Act by passing "The Climate Change Accountability Bill"?

            (a)        Australia

            (b)        Canada

            (c)        Germany

            (d)        Japan

            ANSWER (B)

3.      Which one among the following has the highest energy ?

            (a)        Blue light

            (b)        Green light

            (c)        Red light

            (d)        Yellow light

            ANSWER (A)

4.      In   the   context   of   independent   India's economy, which one of the following was the earliest event to take place ?

            (a)        Nationalisation of Insurance companies

            (b)        Nationalisation of State Bank of India

            (c)        Enactment of Banking Regulation Act

            (d)        Introduction of First Five-Year Plan

            ANSWER (C)

5.      Consider the following pairs :

            Automobile Manufacturer        Headquarters

            1.         BMW AG            :           USA

            2.         Daimler AG        :           Sweden

            3.         Renault S A.      :           France

            4.         Volkswagen AG    :       Germany

            Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

            (a)        1, 2 and 3

            (b)        3 and 4

            (c)        4 only

            (d)        1, 2 and 4

            ANSWER (B)

6.      Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period ?

            (a)        Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

            (b)        Varahagiri Venkatagiri

            (c)        Giani Zail Singh

            (d)        Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma

            ANSWER (C)

7.      Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

            List I (Person)    List II (Organization)

            A.         Anil Agarwal      1.         Gujarat Heavy Chemicals Ltd.

            B.         Gautam H. Singhania      2.         Raymond Ltd.

            C.         Sanjay Dalmia   3.         Vedanta Resources

            D.         Venugopal Dhoot            4.         Videocon Group

            Code :

                        A          B          C          D

            (a)        3          1          2          4

            (b)        4          1          2          3

            (c)        3          2          1          4

            (d)        4          2          1          3

            ANSWER (C)

8.      To integrate cultural leaders into its meetings, which one of the following gives "Crystal Award"

            (a)        Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation

            (b)        International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

            (c)        World Health Organization

            (d)        World Economic Forum

            ANSWER (D)


9.      In India, which one of the following States has the largest inland saline wetland?

            (a)        Gujarat

            (b)        Haryana

            (c)        Madhya Pradesh

            (d)        Rajasthan

            ANSWER (D)

10.      Consider the following statements:

            1.         MMTC Limited is India's largest international trading organization.

            2.         Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited has been set up by MMTC jointly with the Government of Orissa.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

            (a)        1 Only

            (b)        2 Only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (C)
1.        Which   one   of  the   following   pairs   is  not correctly matched ?

                        City      River

            (a)        Berlin    Rhine

            (b)        London  Thames

            (c)        New York           Hudson

            (d)        Vienna  Danube

            ANSWER (A)


2.        Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I     List II

(Famous Temple)           (State)

            A.         Vidyashankara temple    1. Andhra Pradesh

            B.         Rajarani temple 2. Karnataka

            C.         Kandariya Mahadeo        3. Madhya Pradesh

            D.         Bhimesvara Temple        4. Orissa


                        A          B          C          D

            (a)        2          4          3          1

            (b)        2          3          4          1

            (c)        1          4          3          2

            (d)        1          3          4          2

            ANSWER (A)

3.        Consider the following statements :

1.         In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the western margins of continents within the trade wind belt.

2.         In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (A)

4.        Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Geographic feature)                      List II (Country)

            A.         Great Victoria Desert      1.         Australia

            B.         Grand Canyon                2.         Canada   

            C.         Lake Winnipeg   3.         New Zealand

            D.         Southern Alps                4.         USA

            Code :

            A          B          C          D

            (a)        1          2          4          3

            (b)        1          4          2          3

            (c)        3          2          4          1

            (d)        3          4          2          1

            ANSWER (B)

5.        Consider the following statements :

1.         Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.

2.         Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.

Which  of the statements given  abova is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (D)

6.        Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India ?

(a)        Beas

(b)        Chenab

(c)        Ravi

(d)        Sutlej

            ANSWER (D)

7.        Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttled are launched is located on the coast of

(a)        Florida

(b)        Virginia

(c)        North Carolina

(d)        South Carolina

            ANSWER (A)


8.        At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important river flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea ?

(a)        Amarkantak

(b)        Badrinath

(c)        Mahabaleshwar

(d)        Nasik

            ANSWER (A)


9.        Who of the following scientists proved that the stars with mass less than 1.44 times the mass of the Sun end up as White Dwarfs when they die ?

(a)        Edwin Hubble

(b)        S. Chandrashekhar

(c)        Stephen Hawking

(d)        Steven Weinberg

            ANSWER (B)

10.        Which one of the following brings out the publication called "Energy Statistics" from time to time?

(a)        Central Power Research Institute

(b)        Planning Commission

(c)        Power Finance Corporation Ltd.

(d)        Central Statistical Organization

            ANSWER (D)

With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt?

            (a)        Review of Centres-States relations

            (b)        Review of Delimitation Act

            (c)        Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues

            (d)        Price-reforms in the oil sector

            ANSWER (D)


         Mahamastakabhisheka, a great religious event, is associated with and done for who of the following?

            (a)        Bahubali

            (b)        Buddha

            (c)        Mahavir

            (d)        Nataraja

            ANSWER (A)

       Consider the following pairs:

                        Tradition                                              State

            1.         Gatka a traditional marital art               :     Kerala

            2.         Madhubani, a traditional painting           :     Bihar

            3.         Singhwy Khababs Sindhu Darshan        :     Jammu and Kashmir


            Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched:

(a)           1 and 2 only

(b)           3 only

(c)           2 and 3 only

(d)           1, 2 and 3


         Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

                        List I List II

                        (Famous Person)                                 (Well-Known as)

            A.         Anna Hazare                                       1.   Lawyer

            B.         Deepak Parekh                                   2.   Banker

            C.         GVK Reddy                                         3.   Gandhian and Social activist

            D.         Harish Salve                                       4.   Industrialist


                        A             B             C             D

            (a)        1             2             4             3

            (b)        1             4             2             3

            (c)        3             2             4             1

            (d)        3             4             2             1

            ANSWER (C)


        Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

                        List I List II

                        (Famous Person)                                 (Well-Known as)

            A.         Amrita Sher-Gil                                   1.   Dancer

            B.         Bhimsen Joshi                                     2.   Painter

            C.         Rukmini Devi Arundale                        3.   Poet

            D.         Suryakant Tripathi Nirala                     4.   Singer


                        A             B             C             D

            (a)        2             1             4             3

            (b)        2             4             1             3

            (c)        3             1             4             2

            (d)        3             4             1             2

            ANSWER (B)

       With reference to the scheme launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1.         Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

2.         Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)           1 only

(b)           2 only

(c)           Both 1 and 2

(d)           Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (B)

        Consider the following pairs:

                        Persons                             Sports

            1.         Anand Pawar              :        Chess

            2.         Akhil Kumar                :        Boxing

            3.         Shiv Shanker              :        Gold

                        Prasad Chowrasia

(a)           1 and 2 only

(b)           2 and 3 only

(c)           3 only

(d)           1, 2 and 3

            ANSWER (B)


        Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

                        List I                                                    List II

                        (Book)                                                 (Author))

            A.         In custody                                          1.   Amartya Sen

            B.         Sea of Poppies                                    2.   Amitav Ghosh

            C.         The Argumentative Indian                    3.   Anita Desai

            D.         Unaccustomed Earth                            4.   Jhumpa Lahiri


                        A             B             C             D

            (a)        4             1             2             3

            (b)        4             2             1             3

            (c)        3             2             1             4

            (d)        3             1             2             4

            ANSWER (C)


         Among the following, who are the Agaria community?

            (a)        A traditional toddy tappers community

            (b)        A traditional fishing community of Maharashtra

            (c)        A traditional silk-weaving community of Karnataka

            (d)        A traditional salt pan workers community of Gujarat.

            ANSWER (A)

       Recently, which one of the following was included in the UNESCO's World Heritage list?

            (a)        Dilwara Temple

            (b)        Kalka-Shimla Railway

            (c)        Bhiterkanika Mangrove Area

            (d)        Vishkhapatnam to Araku valley railway line

            ANSWER (B)
1.      In a carrom board game competition, m boys and n girls (m > n > 1) of a school participate in which every student has to play exactly one game with every other student. Out of the total games played, it was found that in 221 games one player was a boy and the other-player was a girl.

            Consider the following statements :

            1.         The   total   number   of  students   that participated in the competition is 30.

            2.         The number of games in which both players were girls is 78.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

           ANSWER (C)

2.      There are three cans A, B and C. The capacities of A, B and C are 6 litres, 10 litres and 16 litres respectively. The can C contains 16 litres of milk. The milk has to be divided in them using these three cans only.

            Consider the following statements :

            1.         It is possible to have 6 litres of milk each in can A and can B.

            2.         It is possible to have 8 litres of milk each in can B and can C.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (C)

3.      Consider the following pairs:

            1.         Ashok Leyland   :     Hinduja Group

            2.         Hindalco            :    A.V. Birla Group Industries

            3.         Suzlon Energy   :    Punj Lloyd Group

            Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

            (a)        1 and 2 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        1 and 3 only

            (d)        1, 2 and 3

            ANSWER (A)

4.      In the context of global economy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

            (a)        JP Morgan          :           Financial Services Chase

            (b)        Roche Holding    :           Financial Services AG

            (c)        WL Ross &          :           Private Equity Co.     Firm

            (d)   Warburg Pincus       :           Private Equity Firm

            ANSWER (B)


5.      Consider the following houses:

            1.         Christie's

            2.         Osian's

            3.         Sotheby's

            Which of the above is/are' auctioneer/ auctioneers ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        1 and 3 only

            (c)        2 and 3 only

            (d)        1, 2 and 3

            ANSWER (D)

6. In the context of C02 emission and Global Warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt, better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ?

            (a)        Carbon Footprint

            (b)        Carbon Credit Rating

            (c)        Clean Development Mechanism

            (d)        Emission Reduction Norm

            ANSWER (C)


7.      The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following ?

            (a)        Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro

            (b)        Kyoto Protocol

            (c)        Montreal Protocol

            (d)        G-8 Summit, Hciligendamm

            ANSWER (B)

8.      Who among the following is the founder of World Economic Forum ?

            (a)        Klaus Schwab

            (b)        John Kenneth Galbraith

            (c)        Robert Zoellick

            (d)        Paul Krugman

            ANSWER (A)

9.      The Security Council of UN consists of 5 permanent members, and the remaining 10 members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of

            (a)        1 year

            (b)        2 years

            (c)        3 years

            (d)        5 years

            ANSWER (B)

10.      From which one of the following did Kosovo declare its independence ?

            (a)        Bulgaria

            (b)        Croatia

            (c)        Macedonia

            (d)        Serbia

            ANSWER (D)

National Telecom Policy

The much-awaited National Telecom Policy-2011, will be unveiled in January next year, Telecom Minister Kapil Sibal said on Friday.

The policy was earlier expected to be unveiled by December this year, but delays in receiving recommendations have pushed the date to next year.

"The (draft) policy I have already announced as I had committed. Industry wants some more time to respond, we will give them time. All what will happen is finalisation of the policy will happen in January instead of December," Sibal said here at an event.

He added that TRAI's recommendations on the National Telecom Policy have just come in and the Department of Telecom is looking into the same.
"The TRAI recommendations have just come, we will consider them, call Telecom Commission (meet)... move to Cabinet," Sibal said.

Sibal said the media is confusing between TRAI's recommendations and the Telecom Policy.

"People must understand the difference between policy and TRAI's recommendation. The TRAI recommendations deal with the nitty-gritty of mergers and acquisition and all the other specific issues which never go in to policy," Sibal said.

The draft of the National Telecom Policy, 2011, was announced by Sibal in early October with a major thrust on transparency, an improved investment climate and promotion of consumer interest.

Under the draft plan, the Telecom Ministry is also looking to facilitate nation-wide free roaming, frame an exit policy for operators to surrender licences, give a push to indigenous manufacturing and promote an eco-system for development of a self-dependent telecom industry.
Interesting ... Lets see whether Chennai Corporation will take more actions against them... or they leave the matter in 1 or 2 days to their favour.....
Jul 01, 2010, 01:18 AM
Amazing... its seems like birds flying in the sky
Chat Box / Re: World's Youngest web designer
Jul 01, 2010, 01:14 AM
Congrats Sreelakshmi Suresh... great
Plz update the information of the college
Universal Input Data Acquisition Module

Especially used for All industrial applications...


    * Universal Inputs
    * Realistic Cold junction Compensation
    * 16 Bit Sigma Delta A/D
    * Inter Channel Isolation
    * Dual Redundant Com Ports
    * Easily Expandable
    * MODBUS Connectivity

Sun Releases NetBeans 6.7 IDE for Java, PHP

For most developers, the IDE (define) is where many start their coding efforts. Yet an IDE itself is just a development tool, and developers still require a place to host their source code. It's a gap that Sun is hoping to bridge with the release of its new NetBeans 6.7 IDE, which includes integrated support for Sun's Project Kenai.

Kenai is Sun's collaborative hosting site for free and open source projects. In addition to Kenai support, NetBeans 6.7 includes improved support for PHP and Apache Maven, enabling both Java and PHP developers to utilize the new IDE.

Sun's latest IDE release comes barely a week after rival Eclipse put out its major release and as Oracle's acquisition of Sun looms near.

"NetBeans and Kenai are a natural fit," Tori Wieldt, NetBeans's marketing manager, told InternetNews.com. "With more than 23 million NetBeans IDE downloads and a vibrant NetBeans user community, we expect that more and more developers will take advantage of the hosting and collaboration features at Kenai.com. We've already seen a growth on Project Kenai -- they have over 13,000 members from 132 countries."


Madras Univ to confer honorary degree on Chilean President

A proposal for conferring honorary doctorate on President of Chile, Michelle Bachelet Jeria, will come up at the Syndicate meeting of the University of Madras on Saturday. 

Last year, the university had awarded honorary degrees to Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, UPA president Sonia Gandhi and Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Karunanidhi at a special ceremony.

The discussion on appointment of lecturers for various university departments will also take place at the syndicate meet. The issue had raised several eyebrows among the university staff itself.

Sources at the university said that the advertisement was placed in a hurry and the candidates were called for interview last week. Though this was the norm, professors questioned the rationale behind the move.

"What is the need to convene an emergency syndicate in order to approve the candidates at the end of an academic year? Also, since this is a government-run institution, questions may be raised about the validity of appointment after the election dates have been announced," stated a professor with the university.

The university vice-chancellor Prof S Ramachandran clarified that there was nothing remotely dubious about the procedure as the advertisement was placed much before the announcement of the elections.
Now, file your service tax returns online

Filing of returns, seeking refund/rebate of taxes, obtaining various permissions and approvals from the Department of Central Excise and Service Tax can now be made online. This follows the introduction of ACES (Automation of Central Excise and Service Tax), a workflow based application software  at the Commissionerate of Service Tax and at the Large Taxpayer Unit (LTU) in Chennai on Thursday.

Speaking to reporters after launching the project, V Sridhar, Member, Central Board of Excise and Customs, said,  this centralised web enabled software would eventually replace the current practice of  manual work.  Besides obtaining various permissions and approvals from the department, the new software could also be used for dispute resolution by an electronic interface.

Sridhar said ACES was a mission mode project of the Central government under the national e-governance plan. He said the pilot project that was launched in Chennai enabled assessees to obtain registration under Central Excise/Service Tax online, to electronically file statutory returns, claims, and intimations besides track the status of these documents online.

The software also had features to generate business related alerts and messages. The project is one of the important steps taken in the information technology consolidation undertaken by the Central Board of Excise and Customs.

Under the IT consolidation project, it is proposed to connect all the Central Excise, Customs and Service Tax offices across the country through a wide area network (WAN) and provide linkages to other stake holders like custodians, banks, Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), Income Tax for validation and online clearances, Sridhar further added.

He said that ACES was first launched in the Large Taxpayer Unit at Bangalore in December 2008 and received 100 per cent patronage. Chennai has been selected as the next ACES linked station, considering the active co-operation extended by the central excise and service tax assessees here.
Private banks to cut rates

In a closed-door meeting with D Subbarao, the governor of the Reserve Bank of India, private sector banks promised that they will cut interest rates. Subbarao met with eight bankers, including ICICI Bank managing director and CEO KV Kamath and HSBC's India group general manager and CEO Naina Lal Kidwai.

UCO Bank chairman and managing director SK Goel, who was also attended the meeting, said private banks have promised that they will cut lending rates further. "The discussion was about giving relief to borrowers. To see that they are comfortable and not put to any inconvenience. Whatever is possible will be done on rates," he said.

Goel also said that bankers wanted to cut deposit rates, "but we will have to wait for a month," he added.
ICICI Bank last cut its prime lending rate on December 31, 2008 by 50 basis points to 16.75%.

Experts are of the opinion that the Reserve Bank of India will also cut interest rates soon with the growth slowing down to 5.3%.

The Reserve Bank of India is expected to cut interest rates because of the slow growth of 5.3% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in from October to December 2008.

"This (GDP) data should act as a trigger for a rate cut, that seems to be clear in my mind," said prime minister's Economic Advisory Council chairman Suresh D. Tendulkar.

D.K. Joshi, principal economist at the rating agency CRISIL, said "A rate cut can happen anytime soon."
Economists expect RBI to cut the repo rate (the rate at which it lends to banks) by 50 basis points to 5% from the current 5.5%. " In the immediate future, RBI may cut repo rate and cash reserve ratio by 50 basis points," said Robert Prior Wandesforde, chief Indian economist-global markets, HSBC Bank.

Cash Reserve Ratio is the proportion of their deposits that banks need to maintain with the RBI and currently stands at 5%.

Airport and Airline Management

An ISO 9001-2000 Certified Institution


Tel: 0422-2252672/ 2252673

Email: admissions@nehrucolleges.com

Web: www.nehrucolleges.com

Pioneers in Aviation Training

Admission 2009-2010

(Approved by DGCA, Govt.of India, New Delhi)

(Approved by AICTE and Affiliated to Anna University)

Airport and Airline Management

Eligibility: AME: +2/DIPLOMA with 50%

MBA: ANY DEGREE with 40%

BE: +2 with 55% in MPC

Cost of prospectus: AME AND MBA: Rs.500/-
BE: Rs.250/-


ON PLACEMENT 5 digit salary in India and 6 digit salary in other countries

Aircraft and Aviation Labs, Model Airport, Aviation Museum, Photo Gallery, Heavy Aircrafts, Helicopter and 10 small Aircrafts for Practical Training and OJT.

Best Aeronautical Training Institute of India. > Campus Recruitment by all leading Aviation industries from India and Abroad. > Fees in easy instalments and Bank loan facility. > Separate Hostel for Boys and Girls.

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2009--B.E/B.Sc.(Ag.)/B.Sc.(Horti.)

Annamalainagar - 608 002
Tamil Nadu, South India.



Degree Programmes


The Entrance examinations for Admission to B.E/B.Sc(Ag) and B.Sc.(Horti.)Programmes of the Annamalai University for the year 2009-10 are scheduled to be conducted by the University.



AGRICULTURE: B.Sc.Agriculture/B.Sc.Horticulture.

General Instructions: Candidates who are appearing for Higher Secondary OR Equivalent Qualifying examinations during March-May 2009 and candidates who have already passed H.Sc. OR Other equivalent qualifying examinations are eligible to apply for these entrance examinations.

The entrance examination will be conducted in the following scheduled and subjects

Paper 1: Biology(Botany and zoology) - 06.05.2009(Forenoon)
Paper 2: Physical sciences(physics and chemistry) - 06.05.2009(afternoon)
Paper 3: Mathematics - 07.05.2009 (Forenoon)

Cost of application form
01. SC/ST CANDIDATES: Rs.200/-
02. Others : Rs.400/-


Issue of application forms commences from : 23.02.2009
Last date for issue of application forms: 21.03.2009

Last date for receipt of filled in application forms: 31.03.2009

To get application forms by POST the candidate should send a requisition letter along with a DD for Rs.400/- (Except SC/ST Candidates) For SC/ST candidates they have to send a requisition letter along with a DD for Rs.200/- along with a certificate as specified above. The DD should be drawn in favor of THE REGISTRAR, ANNAMALAI UNIVERSITY, ANNAMALAINAGAR-608002 obtained on OR after 21.02.09 from any bank payable at Chennai and a self addressed KRAFT Envelope of size 35cmx15cm with stamps affixed to the value of Rs.15/-.

Candidates are advised to write their name and address on the reverse side of the DD.

Application forms will be sent ONLY BY ORDINARY POST and the University will not be held responsible for non-receipt of application forms.
Sir Chhotu Ram Institute of Engineering and Technology

Approved by AICTE

C.C.S. University Campus, Meerut

Applications on prescribed Application Forms (given at the end) for the following posts are invited from suitably qualified candidates as per AICTE norms (as inidicated against each post) for SIR CHHOTU RAM INSTITUTE OF ENGG. & TECH, a Campus Institute of the University. The Institute is approved by AICTE. Last date of receipt of application is 05 March 2009

    * Agriculture Engg. :-
          o Prof. - 1 (UR),
          o Asstt. Prof. - 02 (SC - 1, UR - 1),
          o Lecturer - 6 (SC-01, UR-3 and OBC - 02)
    * Applied Sc. & Humanities :-
          o Chemistry -
                + Asstt Prof. - 1 (OBC),
                + Lecturers - 02 (SC-1, UR-1)
          o English -
                + Lecturers 03 (SC-01, OBC - 01, UR -01)
          o Environment Science .
                + Lecturer 01 (UR)
          o Maths .
                + Prof. 01 (UR),
                + Lecturers -04 (SC-1, OBC - 1, UR-02)
          o Physics .
                + Asstt Prof. 01 (UR),
                + Lecturers - 02 (SC -01, UR -01)
    * Chemical Engg.
          o Lecturer 01 (UR)
    * Computer Science Engg.
          o Prof. -01 (UR),
          o Asstt Prof. -02 (UR -01, OBC - 01)
          o Lecturers - 07 (SC-02, OBC-02, UR-03)
    * Electronics & Comn. Engg.
          o Prof. -01 (UR),
          o Asstt Prof. -02 (UR -01, SC - 01)
          o Lecturers - 08 (SC-02, OBC-02, UR-04)
    * Electronics & Instru. Engg.
          o Prof. -01 (UR),
          o Asstt Prof. -02 (UR -01, SC - 01)
          o Lecturers - 07 (SC-01, OBC-02, UR-04)
    * Mechanical Engg.
          o Prof. -01 (UR),
          o Asstt Prof. -02 (UR -01, OBC - 01)
          o Lecturers - 09 (SC-02, OBC-03, UR-04)
    * Last Date: 05.03.09

For full details please visit the official website of Sir Chhotu Ram Institute of Engineering and Technology.


Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology

MBA Admission-2009

Date Extented for Submission of Application Form till 9 March 2009:MBA Admission-2009

Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology,
Allahabad -211004, India

Admission to MBA Programme 2009-2011

The institute offers two year full time program with dual specialization in following disciplines:-

Human Resource
Systems Management
Operations Management
International Business


a. Candidates applying for admission must have a Bachelor's degree in Engineering/Technology/Science OR an equivalent degree with Mathematics/Economics as one of the subjects in qualifying examination. Candidates appearing in their final year of Bachelor's degree may also apply.

b. Candidates applying for MBA are required to appear in CAT-2008.

How to Apply

Applicant may fill up down loaded form, take a printout and send the same along with a Demand Draft of Rs. 1000/- paid in the name of Director, MNNIT, Allahabad.

The short-listed candidates shall be called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview at MNNIT, Allahabad. List of Candidates called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview will be displayed on the Institute Website on 12th March, 2009.

Print copy of downloaded form and a D.D. of Rs.1000/- (non-refundable) drawn in favour of "Director MNNIT, Allahabad", payable at Allahabad, should reach the office of the Dean (Academic Affairs) on or before March 9, 2009.

Important Dates

Date of CAT 2008 Examination
16 November, 2008

Last Date for Submission of Form:
9 March, 2009

Declaration of list of Short-listed Candidates:
12 March, 2009

GD/PI for short listed candidates:
29 March, 2009

Declaration of List for Admission:
14 April,

Dean (Academic Affairs)
Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology,
Allahabad -211004, India

Phone: 0532-2271109 (Direct),
Fax: 0532- 0532-2545341, 2545677
Email: deanacademic@mnnit.ac.in

For more info - Visit

Hero Come Director

Head Office


download OR upload
Several warnings have been received about possible terrorist attacks on venues of national and international events held in Chennai recently, highlighting the need to tighten security in the city.

"We did get two to three emails warning us of bomb-laden cars and other things," says City Commissioner of Police K Radhakrishnan.

"Most often, these mails are just hollow threats. However, foolproof security arrangements are made as such mails can never be dismissed as pranks," he added.

This view is echoed by S R Jangid, the Suburban Commissioner of Police. "Almost all the calls are hoax. If undue importance is not given to these threats in the media, the situation won't get out of hand. The media should not overplay irrelevant and hollow threats," he said.

However, not all such threats can be dismissed and some are very serious. A mail received by Ahmedabad police warned of an attack on airports, including those of Chennai and Bangalore. The mail had warned of an hijack attempt and of a suicide bomber being on the prowl at Chennai airport.

Another email, which was received by the Confederation of Indian Industry and was traced to Saudi Arabia, warned of an attack on the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas conclave.

Yet another threat, this time through snail mail, was received by an airline office from the Karraikal region. Police say that the handwriting and the information in the letter matched another letter received in March.

"Considering what is happening in the country, these threats cannot be dismissed without proper analysis," said G U G Shastri, the ADGP Railways.
India's tech capital is stressed out

It is a city of contradictions. On the one hand, it is one of the fastest growing cities in India, but its dizzying growth hides a grim statistic, it is witnessing a rapid rise in suicide rate and has become the suicide capital of India.

Over 200 people, including teenagers, commit suicide every month in the city as they suffer from work-related stress or insecurity.

According to Bangalore Police records, in the first seven months of this year, 1,444 people in the city have committed suicide. Of these, more than 655 people belong to IT and ITES sectors. According to a recent study by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS), Bangalore, over 40 per cent of the suicides in the city are committed by people who earn more than Rs 30,000 per month.

The statistics reveal a dangerous trend.

Mumbai-based psychiatrist Sheetal Ravi said, "The scenario is quite alarming.

People should find some time for the family and friends when they get distressed.

At the moment, we do not have any other way out. The IT industry itself is very competitive and sometimes it becomes very difficult to cope with the pressure of a rapidly changing industry." Sheetal said that the use of credit cards among the techies has soared over the last five years, and with pay cuts happening on the one hand and interest rates soaring on the other, more youth might be driven to depression and suicides.

A source from the HR department of IBM said that pressure on the employee cannot be avoided as "all the foreign projects have tight deadlines and in order to achieve this the companies exert high pressure." They also said that "every company had special programmes to ease the pressure, which sometimes did not work." Sheetal said that most youth become quickly depressed as their family structure has been de-prioritised. The high expectations from their parents coupled with the lack of an adequate social life also contribute to the rising suicide rates, adds Sheetal.

NOKIA to pay for poor service

The Chennai District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (South) has directed the Quantum Telesys, represented by proprietor of Nokia Customer Care Centre in Royapettah to pay a compensation of Rs 5,000 to a customer for negligence in service.

The forum comprising its president P Rosiah and member Y Malliga, which gave the direction while passing orders on a complaint from K V Sajeev Kumar, also directed the firm to hand over a new mobile phone of the same model to the complainant within six weeks.

The forum was allowing the complaint alleging deficiency of service in the supply and maintenance of a phone, which was faulty.
Cars and Bikes / Zen Estilo Sports launched
Sep 24, 2008, 02:20 AM
Zen Estilo Sports launched

Compare the Zen Estilo Sports to the top-end Zen VXi and you will find some changes. Take a look anyway - after all, the Sports version is only Rs 6000 or so pricier than the VXi.

In August, Maruti Suzuki saw a serious decine in sales - like most other car manufacturers in India. The A2 segment cars from Maruti - Alto, Zen Estilo, Swift and WagonR - registered a decline of 9.75%. So a bit of desperate tactics are only to be expected. Also, with a few of these little facelifts, the company might actually be preparing for the imminent launch of the A-Star in India.

One, body graphics everywhere. On the right, left and back. How good it looks, we cannot make out from the few photos available right now.

You have a new chrome tipped muffler extension. Not a bad addition that. A bit of chrome there at the back can look good. Inside, you get an factory fitted CD-MP3 player with four speakers (one in each door.) The IP tray, IP center garnish and speedo dials etc get a bit better looking grey black and silver color scheme. The AC louvres in the Sports Edition Estilo get a silver ring, and carpets and door trim get a bit of the shiny stuff. Wheel covers in the Estilo Sports are sportier, claim Maruti. You decide for yourself! ame goes for revised rear view mirrors.

Looking at all that, why should anyone go for the Estilo VXi anymore? Those extra fittings are worth Rs 6,000
Chat Box / Re: Word Association Game
Sep 23, 2008, 09:10 PM

Communication is the best way to express your Ideas

Chat Box / Re: Interesting game
Sep 23, 2008, 07:30 PM

--- Its a Hollywood MOvie
New Music Card Format from SanDisk

SanDisk announced the launch of a new flash-based micro card for phones, MP3 players and computers, which is slated for official release in the near future. The device is said to be pre-loaded with Digital Rights Management-free music, featuring artists from Sony BMG, Universal Music Group, Warner Music and EMI Music, according to the company.

The slotMusic card will simply have to be inserted into microSD-enabled gadgets such as mobile phones or MP3 players; afterwards, users can enjoy their favourite tunes without having to input any password. As for connecting it to a computer, SanDisk informed that the card was packaged with a USB card reader that renders it compatible to systems running on Windows and Linux.

Moreover, the microSD has a 1 GB storage capacity and also allows users to add music or video content to it, the company further stating that the MP3-based tracks would be played back at a maximum speed of 320 kilobytes per second. SanDisk added that other details concerning the device's price and availability would be made public in time for the upcoming holiday season.

Users will be able to purchase the product at United States brick-and-mortar stores Wal-Mart and Best Buy, the release on European markets being scheduled for a later time.

SanDisk Corporation is a multinational company that specializes in designing and marketing flash memory card products, which was founded in 1988. This year, Milpitas-based SanDisk's market capitalization was reported at $6.5 billion.

"Hey mannnaare"    simply calling some one

Be excited, but be scared. A world of mind-blowing possibilities is suddenly being thrust upon the world of video gaming.

The era of thought controlled games has arrived, and soon you could be required only to 'think' to operate a video game. Maybe you'll even have the chance to be completely immersed in a video game 'world'.

The Emotiv EPOC headset - the first Brain Computer Interface (BCI) device for the gaming market is the technology behind the revolution -- and the company claims to have already mastered thought control.

The EPOC detects and processes real time brain activity patterns (small voltage changes in the brain caused by the firing of neurons) using a device that measures electric activity in the brain.

In total, it picks up over 30 different expressions, emotions and actions.

The leap in technology has been met with excitement amongst many gamers. Singapore enthusiast Samuel Lau has even made a video showing his hopes for the future of gaming.

But, for the creators, what possibilities does this open up for future video games?

According to experts, the sci-fi scenarios depicted in The Matrix, and Star Trek's 'Holodeck' are now comprehendible realities in the future.

President and co-founder of Emotiv Systems, Tan Le, said the brain-to-computer interface was undoubtedly the future for video games.

"Being able to control a computer with your mind is the ultimate quest of human-machine interaction. When integrated into games, virtual worlds and other simulated environments, this technology will have a profound impact on the user's experience." What do you think video games of the future will look like?

Le envisaged the lines between games and reality continuing to blur.

"In the long run, the user's interactions with machines will more closely mimic our interactions with other humans. Our technology will ultimately bring communities of people closer together to richly share their experiences," she said.

Rick Hall, production director at the Florida Interactive Entertainment Academy, is also open-minded about possibilities in future gaming.

Hall, who has worked across machines such as the N64, Sony PSP, PS2, and Nintendo DS, told CNN that some of the concepts in The Matrix were now "eerily reaching towards theoretical possibility".

"If we can interpret basic control thoughts now, it isn't far off where we'll be able to interpret more complex thoughts, even potentially things you're not consciously thinking of. If we can now do it in a non-invasive fashion, it probably won't be long before we can read these things from across the room.

And if we can "read" complex thoughts, then shouldn't we also be able to "write" thoughts into a person's brain?

"So add that up: a wireless, remote, brain reading/writing device that can scan, interpret, and communicate with someone across the room, without them even knowing it. Connect that to the Internet... and talk about brainwashing possibilities. What if some hacker could figure out how to write viruses to people's brains? It's actually a little scary."

But, it's not all optimism and imagination for the technology.

B.Sc Aircraft Maintenance Technology / Aeronautical Technology

An ISO 9001-2000 Certified Institution
Phone: (0422) 2252671 , 2252672, 2252673
Email: admissions@nehrucolleges.com
Website: www.nehrucolleges.com

The perfect take-off to your flying career

Learn from the Pioneers


Aircraft Maintenance Technology
Aeronautical Technology
(Affiliated to Anna University)

Eligibility: +2 with MPC.

Duration: 3 years

Aircraft and Aviation Labs having SCALE MODEL NEXT GENERATION AIRPORT, Aviation Museum, Photo Gallery, 8 Aircrafts & Helicopter for Practical Training

Campus Recruitment by all leading Aviation Industries form India and Abroad.

No Donation, Fees in easy installments and Bank loan facility.

Heavy Aircraft acquired for Advanced Training

For Admission contact with original certificates at Kuniamuthur Office, Coimbatore.
Quscient Freshers Walkin 22nd September - 27th September 2008

About Company

QuScient, with deep experience in process and technology solutions, offers transformational Business Process Outsourcing to its mid-market customers. BPO has moved beyond pure cost arbitrage and the second phase of BPO is a consulting-led outsourcing model with "measurable business gains" as the objective. Our process consulting can help optimize any sub-optimally conceived processes, while putting together creative, scalable technology systems to support the processes. The technology building exercise and your business processes can be outsourced to us to take advantage of low offshore costs and high process quality. In our relentless quest to add 'business value' to our customers, we aim to be a trustworthy and dependable partner.

City/ Location: Chennai

Educational Qualification: Any Graduate/Diploma holder / 10+2, Good Communication Skills, Willing to work in Night Shifts

Experience Level: O - Up Years

How to Apply: Walk-in 22nd-27th September 2008, 10 AM - 6 PM

Venue: Quscient Technologies Pvt Ltd.

Module No. 1207,
Tidel Park, 12th Floor,
North Block - D, No.4,
Rajiv Gandhi Salai,
Taramani, Chennai - 113.

Phone: 4211 8120 / 98405 63332

Email: resume@quscient.com

Job Description      Mobius Knowledge Services recruits - Web Researchers with the following skills.

Graduates with good analytical skills.

Good in basic computer skills.

Willing to work in flexible work timings.

Please e-mail your resume with the position in the subject line

clearly mentioned to careers@mobiusservices.com

Job Function    Web Researchers

Education    Graduates with good analytical skills

Company Details

Company Name    Mobius Knowledge Services

Company Profile    At Mobius, we firmly believe that the strength of the company lies in the individual. Mobius is a thought leader in the knowledge services space and provides immense scope for growth and outstanding opportunities for learning and self-development. All these make Mobius the organization that is ideal for building singularly successful careers.

Candidate Details

Experience    Freshers

Location    Chennai

Contact Information

Address:    "Karumuttu Center"
634 Anna Salai
Chennai - 600 035
Tamil Nadu, India

Phone: +91-44-2433 3336/4446

Fax: +91-44-2431 5528

Apply Details    For Further Details click on redirect to employers Website.

Apply Email    careers@mobiusservices.com
[blink]Google Android First Phone Nearing Release[/blink]

Everybody's waiting for T-Mobile's big announcement: the release of Google's new Android Phone, which is expected to be introduced on September 23. The gadget will be the first one to use the search giant's open-source Android operating system, a platform that allows handset makers and wireless operators to develop innovative applications.

Called the Dream, the phone is said to be fitted with a large touch screen, a swivel-out QWERTY keypad and a trackball for navigation, the latter two resembling the ones that Research In Motion's BlackBerry smartphone offers their users. Speaking of the competition, apart from running against the aforementioned device on the mobile phone market, the Dream will also have to face Apple, Symbian and Microsoft.

Tuesday, The Wall Street Journal stated that the company that would be shipping Google's product was Taiwanese manufacturer High Tech Computer Corporation (HTC), a member of the Open Handset Alliance, a statute which enables open-source operating systems such as Android to run on their hardware.

HTC estimates that sales will range from 600,000 to 700,000 units this year, while analysts reckon that the number of units to be sold until the end of 2008 will be somewhere between 300,000 and 500,000.

The launch announcement gave no pricing details or availability dates. But press reports said that the Dream would go on sale to existing T-mobile customers later this month for 149 dollars, with delivery expected in mid October.

On the same day, Google offered a limited viewing of the Dream in London during a presentation at Google Developer Day. Mike Jennings, a development advocate for Android, used the phone to create an app that bounced a blue dot within the device's screen, showing those present that the Dream features an accelerometer. No other features were revealed to the audience at that moment.

The Android platform was officially launched last year, on November 5, as a result of a collaboration between Google and HTC, Intel, Motorola, T-Mobile, nVIDIA and Qualcomm, with one sole purpose: to develop open standards for mobile devices. Google is working on boosting the quality of Web browsing, enhancing the audio and video experience for mobile phones.

The Linux-based Android has opened up broad flexibility and ease of development for handset makers, and it is certain that the consumers will eventually benefit greatly from the new features and the efficiency of the hardware use by the upcoming Android handsets.

The Android platform features an application framework enabling reuse and replacement of components, a Dalvik virtual machine optimized for mobile devices, optimized graphics powered by a custom 2D graphics library; 3D graphics based on the OpenGL ES 1.0 specification (hardware acceleration optional), media support for common audio, video, and still image formats (MPEG4, H.264, MP3, AAC, AMR, JPG, PNG, GIF) and few other things like Bluetooth, EDGE, 3G, and WiFi (hardware dependent) and camera, GPS, compass, and accelerometer (hardware dependent).

Google's Android mobile phone is expected to hit the market in October.
Google Desktop 5.8 for Windows: increased performance

We love getting your feedback, and one of the themes that has cropped up in the Google Desktop Help group is that you want a lighter, faster product. We heard the message loud and clear and decided that the Google Desktop 5.8 for Windows release would be based entirely on performance.

In true Google fashion, we took a data-driven approach: Measure, then analyze, fix the most important issues and lowest hanging fruit, then rinse, lather and repeat.

First, we built performance tests that simulate a typical user's behavior when using Google Desktop and measure the time spent on actions such as starting up, shutting down, searching, adding a gadget, adding a new document to the search index, and so forth. We then took a page from the Google Chrome playbook by running the performance tests automatically for every single change we made to the software, on dozens of machines each time so that an average of the time measurements from all of them would give us a reliable comparison against previous versions.

Next, we refined an option that helps us improve the product, with your agreement. To send us information about problems you might experience, you can opt in to our error reporting system. If you have opted in, the system will send us anonymous diagnostic information about such events as crashes. In the new version, we improved this system to also detect and report situations where our product could be making your computer slow to respond.

We've learned a lot from these two new sources of data. The performance measurement system enabled us to discover some seemingly small changes that had a major impact on performance. We've been able to immediately fix changes that decreased performance, and learn from changes that improved performance. For example:

    * We found a way to cut memory usage during startup by about 50%.
    * Shutdown now happens five times faster, and we were able to avoid a seemingly innocuous state that would have almost doubled startup time.

From automated error reports sent by our beta testers, we learned that while Google Desktop generally performs very well, certain types of usage and some interactions with 3rd party software can trigger problems. We've made dozens of improvements based on this data. Here are some examples of what we've been able to fix:

    * A few obscure cases where interaction with third party software could slow the computer down when certain types of files were being added to the search index.
    * A rare issue that could cause slower computers to become temporarily unresponsive during Google Desktop startup.

We still weren't satisfied, so we analyzed the design of our software to find ways to improve it. This led us to make a few more changes:

    * We realized that with the hundreds of Google Desktop Gadgets available from third parties, there is always the possibility that one of them performs badly. To help you deal with this, we added a system that detects when a gadget is causing your computer to perform poorly, and asks you whether to remove the gadget. While we were at it, we added proactive security measures that prevent malicious gadgets from stealing information from other gadgets, and we made changes that allow Flash programs such as interactive games to be embedded in gadgets; for certain types of gadgets this can be a lighter weight approach than previously possible.
    * To reduce memory usage, increase stability and reduce memory fragmentation, we reduced the number of different processes that Google Desktop runs, and we now recycle some of our processes frequently (just like Google Chrome).
    * Microsoft Outlook users will be glad to hear that we've reduced memory usage while at the same time improving the coverage and increasing the stability of our Outlook support.


Hi sajev

can you list me the top malls in INDIA
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Gift / Prizes Request / Topup Request
Sep 11, 2008, 02:00 AM
User Name : sams.raghu
Date  : 10 september 08
Status : Urgent
Postcount : 34
Total No of Post you made so far : Ex 674 posts : 476
Type of the Gift : Mobile Topup
Select Your Service Provider : Airtel Prepaid

Here by i declare that , before sending this request. I have verified my todays post. So Please check the topup status and confirm it.
[blink]Note : You will be given Warning if you are trying to test this Form or Found Fake[/blink]
2007 Gauhati University B.A Philosophy Paper II - Western Classical Philosophers Question paper



(Western Classical Philosophers)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours
The questions are of equal value
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

Answer any two questions
1. How does Plato examine the view that knowledge is perception in his dialogue  Theaetetus? Discuss.

2. How does Descartes establish the criterion of truth? How does he apply the criterion in relation to the existence of the external world? Discuss.

3. "The scepticism of Hume is the logical outcome of the empiricism of Locke." Elucidate.

4. Show how Hume's analysis of experience leaves no ground for belief in any permanent reality, whether physical or psychical.

Answer any two questions

5. How does the critical philosophy of Kant reconcile the rival claims of empiricism and rationalism?

6. "Space and Time are empirically real but transcendentally ideal." Comment on  Kant's view.

7. Give a critical account of Kant's Transcendental Deduction of Categories.

8. Write an essay on Kant's Doctrine of Method.


(Contemporary Western Philosophy)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours
The questions are of equal value
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

Answer any two questions
1. What is an 'appearance'? How is an appearance related to reality? Critically discuss following Bradley.

2. What is Phenomenology? Discuss the merit of Husserl's process of phenomenological reduction (bracketing).

3. Explain, adding your comments, the Sartrian expression 'existence precedes essence'.

4. Explain and examine Heidegger's concept 'beings-in-the-world'. Is. 'anguish' natural for men? Discuss.

Answer any two questions

5. What, according to Russell, are the distinctive characteristics of modem logic? Can logic be taken as the essence of philosophy? Discuss.

6. How does Moore refute the principle esse est percipi? Show, giving examples, the relation between consciousness and the object of consciousness.

7. Write an evaluative essay on Wittgenstein's concept of philosophy as 'critique of language'.

8. Is it possible to 'do things' with words? Discuss the problem with reference to Austin.

B.A Political Science Paper I: International Politics Question paper

(International Politics)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions
Write the answers to the two Halves in' separate books
1. Answer any two of the following:
a) What is the difference between International Relations and International Politics?
Comment on the changing - nature of International Relations. 6+6
b) Explain the concept' 'power'. What are the tangible elements of power? Discuss.
c) What is Foreign Policy? importance of national Foreign Policy Making. 6+6
d) Explain briefly Kaplan's six models of system theory. Discuss the interest in 12
2. Write short notes on any two of the following: 5×2=10
a) Nationalism
b) Problem of Peace
c) Arms Control
d) Diplomacy
3. Write the correct answer / Answer the following: l×6=6
(a) The author of the book titled Politics among Nations is
(i) Hans Morgenthau
(ii) Morton Kaplan
(iii) Claude Iris
(iv) T. Bandyopadhaya
(b) The first chair in International Relations was established in the year
(i) 1919
(ii) 1930
(iii) 1945
(iv) 1980
(c) Which one is NOT the correct statement?
(i) Collective security is another device of management of power.
(ii) After the Second World War,. the interdependence of sovereign States has
(iii) Capitalism generally developed out of feudalism; and was responsible for
colonisation and imperialism.
(iv) 'Economic liberalization has not weakened the hold of the State over
(d) What is the full form of NATO?
(e) Single European currency started in the year __________ (Fill up the blank)
(f) The term 'Cold War' was coined by
(i) Walter Lippmann
(ii) Raymond Aron
(iii) E. H. Carr
(iv) Quincy Wright
4. Answer any two of the following:
a) Discuss the role of Security Council in maintaining international peace and
security. Has it been a success or a failure? 6+6
b) What do you understand by the New International Economic Order? Discuss the
structural division between the Global North and the South. 6+6
c) Discuss India's stand on the question of Nuclear Weapons. 12
d) What were the reasons for the end of Cold War? Discuss. 12
5. Write short notes on any two of the following: 5×2=10
a) Indian Ocean as a Zone of Peace
b) India's Foreign Policy
c) Arm Race
d) NAM
6. Write the correct answer: 1×6=6
a) Which is the most important and exclusive power of the five permanent members
of UN?
b) What is the full form of SLBM?
c) The major allied powers were the USA, USSR, Britain, France
and_________(Fill up the blank)
d) The first NAM Summit was held in the year _______ (Fill up the blank)
e) Who authored the International Relations World Wars?
f) Match list 1 and list 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
(i) A B C D
1 2 3 4
(ii) A B C D
4 3 1 2
(iii) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(iv) A B C D
2 1 4 3
List 1 (Event)
List 2 (Year)
A Paris Peace Conference 1. 1945
B Partial Test Ban Treaty 2. 1917
C Potsdam Conference 3. 1963
D Russian Revolution 4. 1919
2007 Gauhati University B.A Political Science Paper II: Political theory Question paper



(Political Theory)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

1. Answer any' two of the following:
a) Why does Plato insist that philosophers must be kings? Do you consider the idea
practicable? Explain. 6+6
b) Examine Aristotle's concept of democracy. Was Aristotle a democrat? Give
reasons for your answer. 6+6
c) Why is Machiavelli called the modem political scientist? Discuss his views on
State and Government. 6+6
d) Examine the contribution of J. S. Mill to political thought. 12
2. Write short notes on any two of the following: 5×2=10
a) Mill and women representation
b) Hegel's views on State
c) Locke as an individualist
d) Po1itical ideas of Kautilya
3. Write True or False/Fill in the blanks / Answer the following questions: 1×6=6
a) Who developed the concept of 'greatest happiness of the greatest numbers'?
b) Who authored the book titled Concerning Justice?
c) According to ______, state of nature is an era of peace, goodwill and mutual
d) Rousseau was an advocate of popular sovereignty.
e) Statesman was written by _________.
f) "Man is not social, but antisocial" stated by__________.

4. Answer any two of the following: 12×2=24
a) Elaborate Marx's concept of class struggle and surplus value. 6+6
b) Analyse the socialist ideas of Robert Owen. 12
c) "Guild Socialism is the combination of the good elements of Fabianism and
Syndicalism." Explain. 12
d) Explain how Leninism is the further development of Marxism. 12
5. Write short notes on any two of the following: 5×2= 10
a) Gandhi and Non-violence
b) Anarchism
c) Democratic Socialism
d) Dictatorship of the Proletariat
6. Fill in the blank/ Answer the following questions: 1×6=6
a) Name any advocate of Guild Socialism.
b) Name any book written by Lenin.
c) "Property is theft" stated by _______________.
d) Identify the author of the book Hind Swaraj
e) Name any advocate of Utopian Socialism.
f) Who is the author of the book The State and Revolution?
2007 Gauhati University B.A Political Science Paper III: Indian Political System and Social Change Question paper



(Indian Political System and Social Change)

Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours
The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

1. Answer any two of the following:
a) Comment on the salient features of Indian political system with special reference
to its ideological aspects. 12
b) Discuss the role of Fundamental Rights in ensuring and promoting individual
liberty. What types of legal remedies are guaranteed by the Constitution in cases
of violation of Fundamental Rights? 6+6
c) Discuss the ways in which the legislature can exercise control over the working
of bureaucracy in India. 12
d) Explain the significance of Panchayati Raj institutions in bringing about
democratic decentralization in the context of 73rd Amendment of Indian
Constitution. 12
2. Write short notes on (any two) 5×2=10
a) Regional Political Parties
b) Role of Planning Commission
c) Role of Opposition in Parliament
d) Supreme Court of India
3. Choose the correct answer: l×6=6
a) Which article of Indian Constitution contains special provisions for the State of
Jammu and Kashmir?
(i) Article 14
(ii) Article 112
(iii) Article 370
(iv) Article 395
b) Which district of Assam was transferred to Pakistan in 1947 as a result of
partition of India?
(i) Mymensingh
(ii) Rangpur
(iii) Chittagong
(iv) Sylhet
c) Who was the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(i) Jawaharlal Nehru .
(ii) Dr. S Radhakrishnan
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(iv) C Rajagopalachari
d) Who is the author of the book entitled The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a
(i) Rajni Palme Dutt
(ii) Granville Austin
(iii) Durga Das Basu
(iv) Maulana A K Azad
e) Who appoints the Judges of High Courts in India?
(i) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(ii) Governor of the State
(iii) President of India
(iv) Vice-President of India
f) Which. of the following States in India has Legislative Council (Bidhan
Parishad) in addition to Legislative Assembly (Bidhan Sabha)?
(i) Assam
(ii) Meghalaya
(iii) Bihar
(iv) Arunachal. Pradesh

4. Answer any two of the following:
a) Evaluate the role of social movements in effecting social change. Illustrate with
examples in the context of India. 8+4
b) Examine the changes in Indian family system resulting from the process of
modernization. 12
c) What is urbanization? Examine the problems of urban life in India. 4+8
d) Examine the process of social change among tribals in India with special
reference to North-Eastern region. 12
5. Write short notes on (any two): 5×2=10
a) Role of Elites in Indian society
b) Conditions of Harijans
c) Role of Education in social change
d) Economic inequalities in Indian society
6. Choose the correct answer: 1×6=6
(a) Which article of the Constitution prohibits practice of 'untouchability' in India?
(i) Article 30
(ii) Article 1 7
(iii) Article 356 (iv) Article 40
(b) Which of the following tribes is characterized by 'matrilineal' system?
(i) Khasis
(ii) Nagas
(iii) Mizos
(iv) Santhal
(c) In which year did the Central Government appoint Minorities Commission in
(i) 1951
(ii) 1961
(iii) 1978
(iv) 1989
(d) Who was the founder of Arya Samaj?
(i) Swami Vivekananda
(ii) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(iii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iv) Raja R~ Mohan Roy
(e) Who gave the call for 'total revolution' in India?
(i) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
(ii) Gopinath Bordoloi
(iii) Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
(iv) Jai Prakash Narain
(f) Who wrote the book Hind Swaraj?
(i) B R Anibedkar
(ii) Subhas Chandra Bose
(iii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru


Time : Three hours   Maximum : 100 marks
SECTION A -- (5 x 8 = 40 marks)
Answer any FIVE of the following.

1.What is Finance Company? What are its strengths?

2.What is Financial Innovation? Trace out its need.

3.What are non-fund based financial services of a commercial bank? Give any three examples.

4.What is hire purchase? What are the obligations of hire vendor under the Hire purchase agreement?

5.What is an Asset Management Company? How it operates?

6.What is Factoring? Explain its features.

7.What is consumer finance? What are the areas in which consumer finance is given by the bankers?

8.Who is an underwriter? What is his obligation under an underwriting agreement?

SECTION B -- (4 x 15 = 60 marks)
Answer any FOUR questions.

9.Discuss the nature of Financial Service Industry and the market environment under Indian context.

10.What is a Lease? What are the merits and limitations of Leasing?

11.What is an Open ended Mutual fund scheme? Discuss the salient features of any one open ended scheme of U.T.I. Mutual Fund.

12.What is Venture Capital? Briefly discuss the venture capital scenario in India.

13.What is Credit rating? What are the Instruments for which credit rating is required? How it is useful to the Investor.

14.What is a Credit card? What are its merits and limitations from the point of view of the Issuer, Member establishment and the Card holder?

15.Discuss the role of Merchant banker in Public issue Management.

M.Com. (Marketing) DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY 2008



Time : Three hours   Maximum : 100 marks
SECTION A -- (5 x 8 = 40 marks)
Answer any FIVE of the following.

1.What are non-financial Incentives?

2.What is Bench Marketing?

3.Describe Span of management.

4.What are the types of leaders?

5.What are stages in communication?

6.What do you mean by delegation of authority?

7.How budgets are classified?

8.What are the features of TQM?

SECTION B -- (4 x 15 = 60 marks)
Answer any FOUR of the following.

9.Explain the nature and characteristics of management.

10.What is Planning? What are the steps involved in planning?

11.What are the important steps in the process of organisation?

12.Explain the functions of a leader.

13.Discuss the various non budgetary control devices that may be used in a business concern.

14.What are the merits and demerits of decentralisation?

15.Describe the non financial motivators.



Time : Three hours   Maximum : 100 marks
SECTION A -- (5 × 8 = 40 marks)
Answer any FIVE of the following.

1.State the functions of personal selling.

2.What is meant by territory management?

3.Explain the factors that influence Sales Forecast.

4.Define the term sales management Audit.

5.''One of the major assets of a firm is its channel of distribution - Elucidate.

6.State the criteria in choosing the depot location.

7.Explain the various Inventory control techniques.

8.Briefly explain the economic significance of Transport.

SECTION B -- (4 × 15 = 60 marks)
Answer any FOUR questions.

9.What are the qualities required for a Good salesman? Explain the types of salesmen.

10.What do you mean by sales organisation? Explain the part played by a sales organisation.

11.Discuss the various methods of training salesmen. Bring out the merits and demerits of each method.

12.Discuss various approaches to the selection of channels of distribution which may be taken by manufacturing concern.

13.Bring out the significance of storing and warehousing in marketing and state the advantages of public warehouse.

14.What are the different modes of Transport? What considerations weigh in the selection of a particular mode of Transport?

15.Discuss in detail the functions performed by packaging.

2007 Anna University B.Tech Information Technology - IF 254 -- DATA BASYSTEMS Question paper

PART A -- (10 ? 2 = 20 marks)
1.   List different data models.
2.   What is the difference between logical data independence and physical data independence?
3.   Define the following terms :
(a)   Granting a privilege
(b)   Revoking a privilege.
4.   Define Boyce-Codd normal norm. How does it differ from 3NF?
5.   What are the additional functions of distributed databases?
6.   Why is concurrency control needed? Give an example.
7.   What is transaction time relation?
8.   What are the insertion options available in CODASYL (network model)?
9.   Define the terms OLAP (Online Analytical Processing) and OLTP (Online Transaction Processing).
10.   What are the types available for access to databases on the World Wide Web?

PART B -- (5 ? 16 = 80 marks)

11.   (i)   Consider the following relational database :

employee (employee¬_name, street, city)
works (employee_name, company_name, salary)
company (company_name, city)
manages (employee_name, manager_name)
Each of the following queries given an expression in a relational algebra :
(1)    Find the names of all employees who work for First Bank
(2)    Find the names, address and cities of resistance of all employees.
(3)    Find the names of all employees in the data base who do not work
for First Bank Corporation.
(4)    Give all managers a 10 per cent salary raise.
(5)    Delete all tuples in the works relation for employees of Small Bank Corporation.    (10)

(ii)   What are factors that influence physical database design in relational databases?    (6)

12.   (a)   (i)   Define primary key, super key and candidate key.   (5)

(ii)    Write any five naming conversions used for ER schema diagram.   (5)
(iii)    Discuss the various type of join operation in relational database.   (6)   


(b)   (i)    Discuss about the operations performed on files.   (8 )

(ii)    What is a functional dependency? Explain minimal set of functional dependencies?    (8 )

13.   (a)   (i)   What are the cost components to be taken for query execution?   (5)
(ii)    How is select operation done in query processing?   (7)
(iii)    What is heuristic in query optimization?   (4)


(b)   (i)    Discuss the internal and external hashing.   (5)
(ii)    Write algorithm procedures for the following :   (8 )

(1)   Collision resolution in internal hashing.
(2)   Search in lindear hashing.
(iii)    What are the types available in ordered indices and explain?   (3)

14.   (a)   (i)   Explain briefly about parallel join and parallel sort.   (8 )

(ii)    Discuss about data manipulation and data definition in hierarchical model. (8 )


(b)   (i)    The following is the company database :
Employee : Name, Emp¬_No., Salary, Dept_No, Supervisor Emp_No.
Department : Dept_name, Dept_No, total_salary, manager
Write an active rules to find the total salary.   (8 )

(ii)    Explain the multimedia data types and its application.   (8 )

15.   (a)   (i)   What is the difference between persistence and transient objects?
How is persistence handled in typical object oriented database systems? (6)
(ii)    Discuss the concept of polymorphism.   (6)
(iii)    Compare object oriented and object relational databases.   (4)


(b)   (i)    Describe the association rule among hierarchies with a suitable example.    (5)

(ii)    What are the classification rules? How is regression related to  classification?    (6)
(iii)    What are the main features of commercial available data mining tools?    (5)



(Common to all branches of B.E./B.Tech. - 4yrs and 3yrs courses including Ex B.Sc.)

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks

SECTION 1-(20 x 2 =40 marks)

Answer ALL the questions.

1.   Make antonyms of the following words by adding suitable prefixes :

(a) rational (b) intelligible (c) toxic (d) pious

2.   Match the words in column A with their meanings in column B :

Column A    Column B
(a) Feasibility    exhaust
(b) Option    productive   
(c) Deplete    choice
(d) Constructive    possibility

3. Frame sentences using the given phrases:
(a) Switch over    (b) gone down

4.   Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:
Students ___________ engineering are provided ____________ opportunities ________ get practically trained _________ industries / workshops while doing their courses.

5.   Define the following terms:
a.   Capacitor b. Radar

6.   Fill in the blanks by using correct form of the word that agrees with the subject:
a.   Every one of the labourers ____________ (is / are) given a reward.
b.   Neither of the combatants ____________ (was / were) able to beak the record.

7.   Fill in the blanks with appropriate form of the verbs:
Once upon a time, a little orphan boy ___________ (live) with h is relatives who _______ (treat) him harshly. ________ (fright) That he _________ (punish) severely he ____ (escape).

8.   (a) Transfer the following simple sentence into a compound sentce:
The teacher appreciated the student for her brilliance.
(b) Change the following compound sentence into a complex sentence:
The students have a test and so they are studying.

9.   Fill in the blanks with suitable articles:
Just imagine ______ biology teacher explaining __________ respiratory system or just _______ body part like _________ larynx, to the class.

10.   Give the American English equivalents of the following British English words:
a.   Lift
b.   Aerial

11.   Give the American spelling for the following words:
a.   Analyse
b.   Caliber

12.   Change the following into impersonal passive statements:
a.   They treat water chemically
b.   You cannot change the past.

13.   complete the following sentences suitably
a.   if atmospheric pollution becomes worse, ____________.
b.   If you had approached him ___________________.

14.   Fill in the blanks with comparative forms of the Adjectives given in brackets:
a.   The weather this year is ____________ (bad) than last year.
b.   This movie is __________ (dreadful) than the previous one.

15.   Rewrite as directed:
a.   Listening sill is as important as speaking (into comparative degree)
b.   No other acid is powerful as aqua regia (into superlative degree)

16.   Expand the following compound nouns:
a.   Concrete structure
b.   Friction losses

17.   analyse the sentence pattern in the following sentences:
a.   I met him in Madras last week
b.   They made him the chief secretary.

18.   frame sentences for the following patterns:
a.   S+V+C
b.   S+V+IO+DO

19.   edit the following passage:
The English language came to England with the Germanic tribes who overran England in the fifth century old English borrowed many words from Scandinavian language.

20.   Describe the process of preparing lime tea.

SECTION II - [5 X 12 = 60 MARKS]

21.   Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ozone, a molecule made up of three atoms of oxygen, comprises a layer of the atmosphere that absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun. chlorine atoms, mainly from man made chloroflurocarbons or CFCs, break apart ozone molecules.

Chlorine compounds used in human activities such as electronics, manufacturing and refrigeration are a primary cause of the ozone hole. A large area of intense ozone depletion occurs annually over Antartica during late August through yearly October. The hole typically breaks up as ozone levels increase in late November.

The atmospheric ozone layer over Antarctica declined to record low levels this year due to the combination of an usually cold winter and the continued presence of man made chlorine chemicals reported by US scientists. The surface area covered by the so called, 'ozone hole' in 1993 over 23 million square kilo metres or about twice the size of the Antarctica land mass, was nearly as large as the record 1992 ozone hole.

INSTRUMENT, a Russian satellite orbiting the earth, measured the concentration of ozone over a region
Near the south pole at less than 100 dobson units. This measurements made at the center of the ozone hole was confirmed by balloon and ground based instruments

A Dobson unit is a measure for the physical thickness of the ozone layer. The balloon born measurements also indicated that the Antarctica ozone layer was totally destroyed between the altitudes of 13.5 and 19 kilo metres, creating an ozone void of 5.5 kilo metre thickness.

Deep ozone holes will continue to form annually into the next century. Herman an American scientist, said, 'this situation will persist until the stratospheric chlorine levels decrease'.

The ozone layer is expected to heal itself and become thicker as a result of CFC cutbacks, mandated by an international treaty called the Montreal Protocol.

(a) State whether the following statements are True or False :

(i) Ozone is helpful in the process of absorbing certain radiation creating bad effect.

(ii) Ozone depletion never takes place in the universe.

(iii) The 1993 Ozone hole is considered to be the largest as per the world record.

(iv) Dobson units are used for measuring the effects of danger of ozone.

(b) Read the passage carefully and then choose the responses which best reflect the meaning of the text :

(i) Ozone layer is found

(1) Near the north pole

(2) Near the south pole

(3) As a sheet of the atmosphere

(4) At both south pole and north pole .

(ii) The Ozone molecules break apart due to

(1) The ultra violet radiation

(2) The heat of the sun

(3) The planetary movements

(4)   The levels are intermediary

(c) Choose the meaning which best fits the following words as they are used in the text :

(i)   Radiation

(1) Gathering (2) spreading out

(3) Accumulating   (4) penetrating

(ii)   Depletion

(1)    Production    (2) removal

(3) Moisturisation   (4) reduction

(iii) Decline

(1) becoming weaker   (2) becoming thicker

(3)    becoming stronger   (4)   becoming rough

(iv) Altitude

(1)    length    (2)   breadth

(3) height    (4)   circumference

22. Write a letter to the Editor of a newspaper expressing your concern about the increase in the number of road accidents.

23. Rearrange the following jumbled sentences in the correct order :

(a) A quick reading will give a basic idea of the passage.

(b) If he correct answer is not immediately apparent, check if the option fit in with the meaning
and the structure of both the sentence and the passage

(c) Finally use discretion and judgement to choose the correct option from the remaining choices.

(d) Answering cloze tests requires analytical skills.

(e) The second reading should be accompanied with a reading of the options given after the

(f) And then eliminate choices that do not clearly fit in the sentence.

24. Write a paragraph of 200 words describing the uses of internet.

25. Transcode the following flow chart into a passage of 150 words :

Cellulose shredded wood


Solution of Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda)

Setting bath of dil. Sulphuyic acid


Treads are drawn

Wound on reel


Dried on roller

Wound on bobbin

26. Read the following passage and make notes on it :

Most robots of today consist of little more than a mechanical arm and a computer memory . The
Memory allows the arm to repeat a simple motion like moving a part from one work-bench to
Another, Because its memory can store a collection of such motions, the robot can switch quickly
from one simple task to another. It will not complain of boredom, bulk at job demarcation lines,
take as tea-break or go sick.

This faithful servant is also a stupid one. It has no problem-solving "intelligence". Also it our senses
That would alert it.

If say , the part that it was meant to pick up was upside down - or not there at all. A robot is less
Capable than a man groping in the dark. At least a man can tell by touch if he merely bumps into

Although robots are gradually gaining more senses and more "brains", to-days growth in robotics
has come about largely because industry has learnt how to accommodate these mindless ,
mechanical workers. The automobile industry, which employs some 60 percent of the worlds 20,000
robots , has been leading the way to applications.

That should be no surprise. Assembly-line production is repeated with the sort of simple, repetitive jobs that robots can do so well. Robots are being put to work loading and unloading conveyors, welding car bodies together and spray-painting the finished product. Parts of a car have long been carried to human workers on conveyor belts. It takes only a bit of careful engineering to ensure that the parts sent along to robots are presented in precisely the same position each time. Given that accommodation to their senseless, robots can boost productivity with their untiring speed, and boost quality with their mindless ability to do the same job in exactly the same way every time.

Even smaller manufacturers are finding places for robots in their factories. Some are simply using robots to perform tasks like loading and unloading moulds and presses, which are similar to the jobs, jobs robots do in assembly-line plants.

27. Write a letter to the Manager, ASEAN solutions, Ahmedabad, seeking permission to undergo in-plant training for a week. Assume suitable names and addresses. State your reasons for choosing their company.

28. Describe in two paragraphs the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear power as an alternative source of energy (200) words.
B.E Degree Examination, April / May 2008

(Sixth semester)

MG 1351 - Principles of Management

Time : 3hours Maximum : 100 Marks

Part A-(10*2=20marks)
1.Define Scientific Management
2.Differentiate between Management and Administration
3.What is MBO
4.List any four quantitative forcasting techniques
5.Differentiate between effectiveness and efficiency.
6.What is meant by Delegation of Authority?
7.Define JOB Enrichment
8.Define Noise in communication
9.What is Ethno Centric Organization
10.Bring out any two similarities between Internation Management and Regional Management

Part --B (5 * 16= 80 marks )
11.a.Write an essay about the contributions made by F.W.Taylor, Henri Fayol, L.Gantt, Frank and Lillian Gilberth, George Elton Mayo and others to the field of Management


b.With illustrations from Indian and International Context, explain in detail the different types of Business organization with their suitability.

12. a. In detail explain the importance of plannin in the present Indian business environment. Also highlight the different types of plans


b.Explain in detail the steps in decision-making process with examples. Also explain in detail any two decision making tools (8 + 8 Marks)

13.a.Bring out the factors affecting centralization / decentralization. Also highlight the merits and demerits of centralization and decentralization with examples.


b.Enumerate in detail about the selection process which is widely followed in selecting IT professionals. Also highlight the different types of interviews that can be used in the selection process.

14.a.Elucidate the different leadership styles. Explain in detail about the Blake and Moton's managerial grid. (8+8)


b.Define communication. Explain the process of communication. Explain the various types of communication with its relative merits and demerits. (3 +6+ 7)

15.a. Bring out the different characteristics of an effective budget. Also bring out the different types of Budget with its relative merits and demerits.


b.Bring outh the importance of Productivity measures in any organization. Also in detail enumerate the different productivity enhancement tools used by the organizations in the present competitive scenario.
B.E Degree Examination, April / May 2008

(Sixth semester)


Time : 3hours Maximum : 100 Marks

Answer ALL questions.
PART A -- (10 ? 2 = 20 marks)
1. What is the purpose of controlling torque in indicating instruments?
2. The inductance of moving Iron instrument is given by , where Q is the deflection in radians from zero position. The spring constant is 12 ? 10-6 N-m/radian. Estimate the deflection for a current of 5A.
3. What are the likely errors in an Energy meter?
4. What is the special feature of wattmeter that is suitable for low power factor circuits?
5. How potentiometers are standardised?
6. Define the following terms related to Instrument transformers (a) Nominal ratio (b) Turns ratio.
7. When is contact and head resistances are important?
8. Why the voltmeter-Ammeter method is unsuitable for the measurement of low-resistance?
9. What type of Bridge is used for the measurement of frequency?
10. What are the different sources of errors in a.c. measurements?

PART B -- (5 ? 16 = 80 marks)

11. (i) Derive an expression of torque equation for a moving Iron Instrument and comment on the nature of the scale. (10)

(ii) Meter A has a range of (0-10V) and a multiplier resistance of 18 k?. Meter B has a range of (0-300V) and a multiplier resistance of 298 k?. Both meter movements have a resistance of 2 k?. Which meter has a better accuracy? Why? (6)

12. (a) (i) Explain the errors encountered in electrodynamometer type instruments. (8 )

(ii) A meter having a full scale deflection of 1 mA and Rm of 300 ? is to be used to measure sinusoidal ac voltage of 0-10V range. Compute the multiplier resistance that is required. Assume the diode has a forward resistance of 0 ? and a reverse resistance of infinite ohms. (8 )


(b) (i) Explain the construction and working principle of an Energy meter for ac circuits. (8 )

(ii) An energy meter records one unit for every 660 revolutions of the disc. A load of 1000 watt hour is measured using this meter for 12 hours. The disc was found rotating at 10.2 revolutions per minute. Calculate the error involved in terms of units of energy. (8 )

13. (a) (i) Describe Gall potentiometer with a neat diagram and bring out its salient features. (8 )

(ii) Explain how to calibrate wattmeters using potentiometers. (8 )


(b) (i) How do current transformers differ from potential transformers. (4)
(ii) A current transformer with a bar primary has 300 turns in its secondary winding. The resistance and reactance of the secondary circuit are 1.5 ? and 1.0 ? respectively. With 5 A flowing in the secondary winding, the magnetising mmf is 100 amperes and Iron loss is 1.2 Watts. Determine the ratio and phase angle error. (12)

14. (a) (i) Which bridge is used for measuring low resistances? Derive an expression for finding out the unknown low resistance under balanced condition. (8)
(ii) With neat sketch, explain the operation of a megger. (8 )


(b) (i) Explain the principle of loss of charge method for measurement of high resistance and derive an expression to find out the unknown resistance using this method. (8 )

(ii) A 2.5 capacitor is charged to a potential of 450 volts. The capacitor is disconnected from the supply and the potential across the capacitor is observed using an electrostatic voltmeter. After 15.2 minutes the voltage has fallen to 280 V. This test is repeated using a resistance 'R' in parallel with the capacitor. But now it took 10.8 minutes for the potential to fall from 450 V to 280 V. Determine the value of 'R'. (8 )

15. (a) (i) Explain with circuit diagram the bridge circuit that can be used to measure high voltages. (8 )

(ii) Derive the equation of balance of a schering bridge. Draw the phasor diagram under null condition and explain how loss angle of capacitor can be calculated. (8 )


(b) In an ac bridge the arrangement is as follows :
AB is an inductive coil of Inductance 'L' and effective resistance 'R'. BC is a non-reactive resistor of 100 ? CD and DA are non-reactive resistors of 200 ? each. CE is a loss-free capacitor 1 . DE is a non-reactive resistance of 500 ?.

Under balance condition, a supply of 10 V at 50 Hz conneced across AC and a vibration galvanometer between B and E. Calculate the value of 'R' and 'L'.
Draw the phasor diagram for the balanced bridge. (16)

Electron Devices

Time: 3Hrs
Maximum:100 marks

PART A (10 X 2 =20)

1. Define electrostatic deflection.

2.List the applications of CRO

3.Define depletion layer capacitance in a PN junction.

4.Determine the germanium PN junction diode current for the forward bias voltage of 0.22 V at room temperature 25 degree C ,with reverse saturation current equal to 1 mA.

5. Define leakage current in a transistor in common emitter configuration.

6. Define transistor insaturation.

7.What is the effect of gate to source voltage on drain charecteristics in a FET?

8.Draw the equivalent circuit of a UJT.

9.List the unique features of LED.

10.Draw the VI charecteristics of a photo diode.

PART B ( 5 X16 =80)

11.Derive from first principle the parameters input/output/feedback conductance ,base spreading resistance and transconductance for the high frequency hybrid - pie model of a transistor.

12 (a) Derive the effect of electric and magnetic field on a electron


(b) Draw the block diagram of a CRO and explain how to measure voltage frequency waveform.

13 (a) (i)How does the generation and recombination of electron -hole pair take place?Explain

(ii) Derive the continuity equation.


(b) Derive the diode equation from first principle and show how charecteristics depends on temperature

14 (a) Draw and explain the structure and charecteristics of JFET and derive the expression for pinch off voltage

(b) Draw and explain the SCR and its V-I charecteristics

15 (a) Explain the concept and theory of charge coupled devices


(b) Draw and explain the solar cell,with device details and operation.
2007 Birla Institute of Technology-Mesra MS Software Engineering Question Papers

MS Software Engineering
Second Semester 2007
Mid-semester examination
Duration : 2 Hours No of pages : 1

Computer Organization & Architecture

1.Design a single precision and a double precision floating point number for the given decimal numbers (2 X 4)
(A) 0.0001
(B) 2345. 234

2. Given the following memory values and one-address machine instruction with an accumulator, what values do the following instructions load into the accumulator?
Word 20 contains 40
Word 30 contains 50
Word 40 contains 60
Word 50 contains 70
Assume Accumulator starts always with the value 80
viii) ADD DIRECT 40 (8 X 1)

3. Discuss the various addressing available for general computer giving an example for each. (8)

4. Write an 8086 assembly language program to compute the sum of two arrays and to store the result in third array, assume a word data. (8)

5. Perform P X Q using Booth's algorithm and verify the same using bit-pairing technique where P = 23 and Q = -15. (2 X 4)
MS Software Engineering

Second Semester 2007

Mid-semester examination

Duration : 2 Hours No of pages : 1

Software Engineering

Q1. Define Software Engineering and explain how it differs from Hardware Engineering.

Q2. Describe any one prescriptive software process model; also mention for which type of projects it would suit the most.

Q3. Define agile process and explain Adaptive Software Development model.

Q4. Explain the core principles or thumb rules ( SE practices) to be followed while creating analysis models.

Q5. Explain briefly the Requirements Elicitation phase.

Q6. A person dials an extension number and provided the other party does not pick up the telephone, leaves a message. The other party can retrieve the messages, keep them or delete them. Use any one of the following to analyse these requirements
a) Develop an Use-case diagram
b) Write Intermediate description or flow of activities with exception conditions
c) Develop an Activity diagram.

Q7. Describe CMMI levels with a block diagram or in a tabular form giving the key process areas for each level.

Q8. What is the hierarchy of views involved in system engineering? What is System simulation and when is it used?

- one of love feelings in VIJAY movie

Famous Dialogue in VADIVEL movie

Designation Customer support

Job Description

Customer support, Voice process.

Desired Profile

Any graduate / post graduate / diploma holder / undergraduate with 0 - 5 years of experience in a call center.
Should be flexible with shifts
Must be excellent in communication

Experience : [blink]0 - 2 Years[/blink]

Industry Type : BPO/ITES /CRM/Transcription

Functional Area : ITES/BPO/KPO, Customer Service, Ops.

Education : Any Graduate

Location : Bengaluru/Bangalore

Contact Hamsa

Accenture IBC
Knowledge Park
4/1, Bannerghatta Road
Bangalore,Karnataka,India 560029

Telephone 91-080-40773183

Website : https://www.accenture.com
Sr. ERP Executive


Job Function : IT/Telecom - Software

Specialization : ERP/CRM

Industry : Logistics/Freight Forward/Distribution/Courier

Qualification : Post Graduation - Others -Graduate (Others -Relevant Stream)

Experience : [blink]2 - 5 Years[/blink]

Level : Junior - Executive, Assistant

Location : TAMIL NADU (Chennai)


Role requires handling the work related to Sr. ERP Executive.


Address :

18 A First St Kamdar Nagar
Chennai 600034

Firefox will be used mostly...
it has more addons and gadgets

Chat Box / Re: World ends on Wednesday?
Sep 08, 2008, 05:00 PM
Hi thanks for the Information  :acumen

I think they will finish this Biggest Experiment Successfully...


Job Function : Electronics, Engg. project Mgmt./site Engg./Civil Engg.

Specialization : Electrical/Electronic, Control, Large Equipments, Microcontrollers, Remote Sensing, Signal Processing

Industry : Engineering/Projects

Qualification : School & Graduation - B.A., B.Com, B.Pharm, B.Plan, B.Sc, BBA, BCA, Diploma, B.Ed, BHM

Experience : [blink]0 - 3 years[/blink]

Level : Junior - Executive, Assistant

Location : TAMIL NADU (Chennai) ,KARNATAKA (Bengaluru / Bangalore) ,MAHARASHTRA (Pune) ,Delhi ,METROS (Delhi/NCR)

JOB DESCRIPTION : Applications Engineers (Projects)

Key Background:

Engineering Graduates & Post Graduates only in these branches: ECE, EEE, Mechatronics, Instrumentation, Control & E&I
MSc Candidates in these branches: Instrumentation, Electronics
Freshers & Experienced Candidates can apply

Job Profile

System Engineering knowledge for Measurement, Automation & Automated Test Systems
System Design including architecture, hardware, software, sensors and accessories
Application development using LabVIEW, TestStand, etc
System integration of software, instrumentation hardware, sensors,
accessories for complete system
Great Logical, Troubleshooting & Problem solving skills
Ability to read electrical & mechanical drawings
Great Attitude and direct interaction with customers & vendors
White Box Testing of the entire system

Applications Engineers (System Integration & Support)
Key Requirements:
Diploma Engineers only in these branches: DECE, DEEE, DICE, Diploma in Mechatronics, Diploma in Instrumentation
Freshers & Exerienced Candidates can apply

Job Profile
System Engineering knowledge for Measurement, Automation & Automated Test Systems
System Design including architecture, hardware, software, sensors and accessories
Application development using LabVIEW, TestStand, etc
System integration of software, instrumentation hardware, sensors,
accessories for complete system
Great Logical, Troubleshooting & Problem solving skills
Ability to read electrical & mechanical drawings
Great Attitude and direct interaction with customers & vendors
Black Box Testing of entire system

COMPANY DESCRIPTION : www.apnatech.com

Leaders in Measurement, Automation & Control in the field of Test Measurement


Address : careers@apnatech.com
Sundram Fasteners Looking for Fresh Diploma Trainees

Sundram Fasteners Ltd

Designation Fresh Diploma Trainees

Job Description

To assist Shift In-charge. The applications may be sent to the e-mail ID : ashok@sez.sfl.co.in

Desired Profile

Knowledge in CNC machines will be an added advantage. One or two years experience will be considered.

Experience : [blink]0 - 2 Years [/blink]

Industry Type : Auto/Auto Ancillary

Functional Area : Production, Maintenance, Quality

Education : Diploma - Mechanical

Location : Chennai


Sundram Fasteners Ltd

AA1,Central Avenue
Auto Ancilliary SEZ
Mahindra World City
Chengalpattu,Tamil Nadu,INDIA 603002

Website : http://www.sundram.com
Raksha Technologies

Experience : [blink]1 - 2 Years[/blink]

Location : Chennai

Education : UG - Any Graduate - Any Specialization PG - Post Graduation Not Required

Industry Type : IT-Software/ Software Services

Functional Area : E-Commerce, Internet Technologies

Job Description

Exciting Opportunities beckon Software Developers for .net with experience of 2yrs for our Chennai facility.

Job Responsibilities

Will be responsible for code development, testing.

Should create Lower Level Documentation.

Desired Candidate Profile
Required Skills

1. Should be an expert in ASP .net, VB .net (2+ years).
2. Hands on experience in SQL (Oracle)
3. Should have good leadership skills

Company Profile

Raksha Technologies Private Ltd. started its operations in 2000 with an objective to create mission critical software applications for manufacturing and service industries. Our clientele includes retailers, foundries, offset printing, hospitals, valve manufacturing, freight forwarding and engineering industries in the areas of CRM, ERP, Decision Support Systems, SMS Based Applications,
Web Design and Applications.

Raksha has an extensive corporate customer base in South India. Raksha has a team of engineers, developers and administrative staff spread over their offices in Chennai, Coimbatore & Bangalore

Contact Details

Company Name : Raksha Technologies Pvt.Ltd

Website : http://www.rakshatech.com

Executive Name : Iyappan

Email Address : hr@rakshatech.com

Telephone : 91-44-24422336,24402378
Chat Box / How are fireflies able to glow?
Sep 05, 2008, 11:54 PM
How are fireflies able to glow?

Why Do Fireflies Glow?

Organisms that produce light are referred to bioluminescent beings. Bioluminescence is defined as "the process wherein light is produced by a chemical reaction which originates in the organism" (1). Bioluminescence is mostly a phenomenon found at the bottom of the ocean floor, but fireflies also possess this ability. They emit a soft light and are often called "lightning bugs" because of the way they flash their light on and off. Contrary to what one might think, the glow that the fireflies give off is not used to attract or deter their prey. On the other hand, fireflies use different intermittent signals in order to capture the attention of a possible future mate. Both sexes of fireflies use a specific flash pattern that can range anywhere from a short burst to a long continuous flashing sequence (2). Within any given population, there are many different species of fireflies and each species has a distinct signal. Males and females locate each other by recognizing their specific sequences. Since mating is essential to survival, attracting a mate can sometime become an aggressive game. It is not unusual in this game for a specific female species of firefly to fake their signals in order to confuse and lure a male from another species for the sole purpose of eliminating him. Overall, the firefly's lantern is essentially a courtship device; but how does the firefly actually make light?

How Does Bioluminescence Work?

The light that a firefly creates is the result of a combination of four different ingredients. This light is produced through a chemical reaction involving Luciferin, which is a substrate, Luciferase, an enzyme, ATP, and oxygen (3). The light producing section of the body is located in the sixth or seventh abdominal section of the firefly. It is within this cavity that the two compounds Luciferin and Luciferase are stored. A firefly will draw oxygen in through its complex system of air tubes and expose the oxygen to the Luciferin and the Luciferin will then oxidize and activate the Luciferase. This will generate a light that will shine through the skeleton of the abdomen. It is important to note that scientists disagree about the method that the fireflies use to control the duration of their flashes. One theory, known as the "Oxygen Control Theory", explains that fireflies can control the length and duration of their light by regulating the amount of oxygen that they intake (3). If little or no oxygen reaches the part of the firefly known as the phonic organ, the chemical reaction will not be extremely strong and the light of the firefly will not shine very brightly or for a lengthy duration (3). Another theory, known as the "Neural Activation Theory" states that fireflies have neural control over the activity of structures called "tracheal end cells" (3). These structures aid in the initiation of the chemical reaction. Whether or not the fireflies have physical or neural control over their ability to produce light, their method of creating the light that emanates from their bodies is extremely efficient. Very little heat is given off of this light which means that not very much energy is wasted at all. This "cold light" has a 96% efficiency rating; which, when compared to an incandescent light that has only 10% efficiency, is rather impressive (3).

How Useful is Bioluminescence?

Christopher Contag, a bioluminescence researcher a Stanford University began to think more about this glow-in-the-dark idea and developed a way to utilize the process that occurs in fireflies when doing research about living tissue. This is because fireflies create light due to a chemical reaction that depends on the presence of ATP. If ATP is present in a sample of something, that is a good indication that life is occurring within that specimen (4). NASA has considered using this method to test for life on other planets. If these firefly compounds were mixed with samples and they produced a glowing reaction, that would mean that the presence of ATP would be highly likely. Biologists are also using this approach to fight Tuberculosis. If the enzyme Luciferase is added to a cultured sample of Tuberculosis and an antibiotic is also added, the strength of the antibiotic can be tested. If the drug fails, then the bacteria will continue to thrive and glow. This method enables researches and doctors to cut the time needed for drug treatments to just three days instead of three months (4). This research has also been employed in gene activation therapy cases, where ultraviolet cameras seek out genes treated with Luciferase. If light is visible, this means that the Luciferase gene is active. This will help researchers to know when they have made a successfully attempt a gene therapy. "This is a powerful approach for looking at any number of biological phenomena, because you can study gene regulation in a living animal over time, in superficial or deep tissues," said Contag (4). There is enormous potential for this type of research.

There are many forms of life in this world. There is also an incredible range of diversity among the kinds of living organisms that roam the earth. Although there is still a lot that we do not know about bioluminescence and fireflies, we do know that the findings of the experiments with Luciferin, Luciferase, and ATP can lead scientists to new and exciting discoveries. I never knew that the fireflies that make up my favorite memories from childhood would be helping to save so many lives.
Google's Chrome Needs A Bit More Polish

Google's Chrome browser might not be as 'bullet-proof' as advertised, with numerous reports on technical issues comming in from its users. The official release of the Web browser's beta version happenend three days ago and Google announced that it will prove to be significantly faster and more secure than Microsoft's Internet Explorer, Apple's Safari browser and Mozilla's Firefox.

Even though, as with any beta version, some problems were expected with the new release, all these software compatibility glitches seem to have caught the company by surprise.
Google released a list of the known Chrome flaws. It includes a series of network errors related to proxies, several issues linked to Google Calendar, Docs and Spreadsheet, lack of support for SSL client authentification, laptops failing to sleep when running Chrome and the inability to remove entries from the Most Visited sites page. There are also some issues with Facebook's platform, as many subscribers reported problems when accessing their accounts.
B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2006


( Common to Mechanical Engineering, Mechatronics and Production
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) How can the mechanism of higher pair be replaced by the mechanism of lower pair?

(b) Write notes on complete and incomplete constraints in lower and higher pairs, illustrating your answer with neat sketches. [6+10]

2. Two points P and Q, 4 cm apart are to be connected by a pantograph. The motion of P to the motion of P Q is 13 : 7. Fine the distance of Q from the fixed point O of the pantograph such that the point P moves at least 12.7 cm in either direction of live O Q P when it is horizontal. Find also the main dimensions of the pantograph.[16]

3. A quick return mechanism Link 2 rotates uniformly at 20rad/sec. Draw the acceleration polygon. Find the absolute acceleration of point B.

4. An engine mechanism ABC has a crank AB of length 4 cm rotating about A. The connecting rod BC is 12 cm long and the piston C has a mass of 100 gm. C moves along the line AC. Draw the velocity diagram and the acceleration diagram for a uniform crank speed of 150 rad/sec in clockwise direction when the angle BAC is 450. What is torque required at the crank to accelerate the piston C at this position? [16]

5. The angle between the axes of two horizontal shafts to be connected by Hook's joint is 1500. The speed of driving shaft is 150rpm. The driven shaft carries a flywheel weighing 10 Kg and having a radius of gyration of 10 Cm. If the forked end of the
driving shaft rotates 300 from horizontal plane, find the torque required to drive the shaft to overcome the inertial of the flywheel. [16]

6. A flat ended valve tappet is operated by a symmetrical cam with circular arcs for flank and nose profiles. The total angle of action is 1500 base circle diameter 125 mm and the lift 25 mm. During the lift, the period of acceleration is half that of the retardation. Speed of cam shaft is 1250 r.p.m. The straight line path of the tapper passes through the cam axis. Find (a) Radii of the nose and flank, and (b) Maximum acceleration and retardation during the lift. [16]

7. (a) What do you mea by conjugate gears? Explain how do the involute profile gear teeth satisfy it?
(b) A pair of gears having 40 and 20 teeth respectively, are rotating in mesh, the speed of the smaller being 2000 rpm. Determine
i. the speed of sliding between the gear teeth faces at the point of engagement, at the pitch point and at the point of disengagement, if the smaller
wheel is the driver. Assume that the gear teeth are of the 200 involute forms that the addendum length is 5 mm and module pitch is 5 mm.

ii. Also find the angle through which pinion turns while any one pair teeth are in contact. [8+8]

8. In an epicyclic train an annular wheel A having 54 teeth meshes with a planet wheel B
which gears with a sun wheel C, the wheels A and C being coaxial. The wheel B is carried on a pin fixed on one end of arm P which rotates about the axis of the
wheels A and C. If the wheel A makes 20 rpm in a clockwise direction and the arm P rotates at 100 rpm in the anticlockwise direction and the wheel C has 24 teeth, determine the speed and sense of rotation of arm P

2008 B.Sc Computer Science JAVA PROGRAMMING Question paper



DURATION:2 Hrs Max:50 Marks
DATE: 28-07-08 TIME :9.15a.m-11.15a.m

I Answer the following. (8*1=8)
1. OOPS allows us to decompose a problem into a number of entities called _____.
2. The wrapping up of data and methods into a single unit is known as _____ .
3. _____ means the ability to take more than one form.
4. What will be the output of the following code?
byte x= 64, y;
y=(byte) (x<<2);
System. out. println(y);
5. What will be the output of the following code:
byte b;
double d=417.35;
b=(byte) d;
System. out. println(b);
6. Given the value of a given variable, write the statement, without using if construct,
which will produce the absolute value of the variable.
7. Java compiler produces an intermedia code known as _______ for a machine that does not exist.
8. Define type casting.
II. Answer the following in short. (3*6=18)
1.   a) Why is Java known as platform-neutral languages?
b) List the eight basic data types used in Java?
2.   a) How is Java strongly associated with the Internet?
b) What is scope of a variable?
3. a) List at least five major differences between C and Java?
What is initialization? Why is it important?
III .Answer in detail. (2*12=24)
1.   a) In what ways does a switch statement differ from if statement. Explain.
b) Write a program to find the number of and sum of all integers freater than 100
and less than 200 that are divisible by 7.
2. a) Form a program to display the series of numbers in a triangle.
b) Compare the terms of their functions, the following pairs of statements:
a) while and d....while
b) while and for
c) break and continue.
2005 Calicut University B.Tech Information Technology HARDWARE SYSTEM DESIGN Question paper

2000 syllabus

answer all questions
1.a) what are the spatiality of CMOS RAM.

b) compare 8086 and 8088.

c) what is meant by interrupt books?

d) what is meant by memory paging?

e) list all modes of 8254.

f) list the features of pentium pro.

g) what is DMA? give brief explanations.

h) write short note on PCI bus. [marks 8*5=40]

2.a i) compare 80386 and 80486 with the difference in architecture. [marks 8]
ii) what are the different types of interfaces give examples? [marks 7]
b i) what is meant by BIOS? [marks 5]
ii) explain the various parts of a PC mother board. [marks 10]

3.a i) explain the addressing modes of 8086 with one example each. [marks 10]
ii) compare 8086 and 8085. [marks 5]
b i) list all arithmetic instructions of 8086. [marks 7]
ii) explain real mode and protected mode memory addressing. [marks 8]

4.a i) explain with a neat sketch the working of 8279 keyboard display interface. [marks 10]
ii) what are the features of dynamic ram. [marks 5]
b i) explain the working of a PPI(8255) [marks 10]
ii) draw the diagram of the interfacing of an ADC to 8086. [marks 5]

5.a i) explain the working of 8237 DMA controller. [marks 10]
ii) write short note on video displays. [marks 5]
b i) explain the working of 8259 interrupt controller. [marks 10]
ii) what are the different classifications of interrupts. [marks 5]




DURATION:2 Hrs Max:50 Marks
DATE: 28-07-08 TIME: 9.15a.m-11.15a.m
SECTION-A (8*1=8)

1. Expand COBOL
2. ________ is the latest version of COBOL.
3. An indicator field may contain ______.
4. A group of statement with the terminating period is called ___________.
5. A ________ gives reference to the storage space in the memory.
6. __________ literals is used to represent in double quotation.
7. ___________ is the second division of COBOL.
8. Give the example for group data type.

SECTION-B (3*6=18)

9. (a)Write the coding format of Cobol ?
(b).Write about COBOL words and character set?

10 (a). Write a COBOL program for multiplying two numbers?
(b) Write a COBOL program to print the student details (name, 5subject, tot).

11(a) Explain literals and different type of literals
(b) Explain level structure with example and value clause?

SECTION-C (2*12=24)

12. Explain the four divisions in COBOL? (or)

13. Explain the picture clause with example?

14. Explain arithmetic verbs with example? (or)

15. Explain input-output verbs with example?

2005 Calicut University B.Tech Information Technology DATA MODELING AND DESIGN Question Paper

2k syllabus

Answer all questions

1.a) explain how object differs from variable.
b) give example for function over loading. also specify the rules.
c) with an example, explain class diagram.
d) what do you mean by window navigation diagram? explain.
e) explain the significance of cohesion with examples.
f) explain principle of type conformance.
g) compare multilevel and multiple inheritance.
h) what are components? describe. [marks 8*5=40]

2.a i) highlight the salient features of OO programming. [marks 8]
ii) discuss the significance of message passing with 2 distinct examples. [marks 7]
b i) what is runtime polymorphism? explain. [marks 8]
ii) with simple example, differentiate the benefits of inheritance over non-inheritance based applications.
[marks 7]

3.a i) compare association and aggregation of classes. [marks 8]
ii) explain the use of sequence diagrams. [marks 7]
b i) draw the state diagram corresponding to the transaction in a bank by a customer. [marks 8]
ii) what is the significance of architecture diagram? explain. [marks 7]

4.a i) for an application of your choice, bring out class invariants, preconditions and post conditions [marks 8]
ii) with examples, discuss the types of visibility levels of classes. [marks 7]
b i) what is coupling? how is it different for procedure and object oriented systems? [marks 8]
ii) discuss the features of encapsulation in detail. [marks 7]

5.a i) highlight the characteristics of polymorphism? [marks 8]
ii) are components different from objects? how? [marks 7]
b i) what is template? explain with example. [marks8]
ii) why and how maxim lasses are useful for OO applications. [marks 7]
B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, February 2008

2007 Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University


(Computer Science & Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Design a DFA for the following language. L = {0m1n/m  0 and n  1} .
(b) Represent all five tuples for below transition (diagram 1b) and decide whether
it is DFA or NFA. [8+8]

2. (a) Design a Moore Machine to determine the residue mod 4 for each binary string
treated as integer.

(b) Design a Mealy machine that uses its state to remember the last symbol read
and emits output 'y' whenever current input matches to previous one, and
emits n otherwise. [8+8]

3. Find a Regular expression corresponding to each of the following subsets over
(a) The set of all strings containing no three consecutive 0's.
(b) The set of all strings where the 10th symbol from right end is a 1.
(c) The set of all strings over {0,1} having even number of 0's & odd number of
(d) The set of all strings over {0,1} in which the number of occurrences of is
divisible by 3. [4×4]

4. (a) Obtain a CFG to generate unequal number of a's and b's.
(b) Obtain a CFG to obtain balanced set of parentheses.(i.e every left parentheses
should match with the corresponding right parentheses). [2×8]

5. (a) What do you mean by ambiguity? Show that the grammar S ! S/S, S ! a is

(b) Show that the grammar G with production
S ! a/aAb/abSb
A!aAAb/bS is ambiguous. [8+8]

6. (a) Explain the terms: Push Down Automata and context free language.
(b) Let G be a CFG with the following productions.
S ! a B c
A ! a b c
B ! a A b
C ! A B
C ! c
Construct a PDA M such that the language generated by M and G are equiv-
alent. [8+8]

7. Give a Turing machine for the following:
(a) That computes ones complement of a binary number
(b) That shifts the input string, over the alphabet (0,1) by one position right by
inserting '#'as the first character. [8+8]

8. (a) What is decidability? Explain any two undecidable problems.
(b) Show that the following post correspondence problem has a solution and give
the solution. [8+8]

I List A List B
1 11 11
2 100 001
3 111 11

B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, February 2008

2008 Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University


( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Why is it necessary to have a variety of diagrams in a model of a system?
(b) Which UML diagrams give a static view and which give a dynamic view of a system?
(c) Consider a computer-based system that plays chess with a user. Which UML diagrams would be helpful in designing the system? Why?
(d) Contrast the following:

i. Actors Vs. Stakeholders
ii. Usecase Vs. Algorithm. [4x4=16]

2. (a) Explain the following:
i. Role
ii. Multiplicity
iii. has-a relationship
iv. Generalization

(b) Define idiom. Enumerate the steps to model structural relationships.
(c) Define the following:
i. Stereotype
ii. Tagged value [8+6+2]

3. (a) Enumerate the steps to model logical database schema. Give all example class diagrams.

(b) Explain the common uses of class diagrams briefly. [12+4]

4. (a) How is recursion represented in a sequence diagram?
(b) Explain the following with regard to interaction diagrams.
i. Object life line
ii. «create» and «destroy» messages
iii. Focus of control
iv. Dewey decimal numbering
v. Nesting of tours of control
vi. Semantic equivalence. [4+12]

5. (a) How is activity diagram used to model an operation. Enumerate the steps.
Give an example diagram and explain briefly.
(b) Enumerate the steps to model a workflow with reference to activity diagrams.

6. (a) Give the sketch of a state machine for the controller in a home security system,
which is responsible for monitoring various sensors around the perimeter of
the house. Briefly explain.

(b) Explain the following parts of a transition
i. Event trigger.
ii. Guard condition. [12+4]

7. (a) What are the contents, common properties and common uses of component
diagrams. Briefly explain.

(b) Enumerate the steps to model source code using component diagrams. [12+4]

8. (a) Write a Java program for the Loan class [8]
(b) Draw activity diagram to inform a person when a loan is due and explain [8 ]
B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, February 2008

2008 Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University


( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Information Technology, Electronics &
Control Engineering, Computer Science & Systems Engineering and Electronics & Computer Engineering)

Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks

1. Some CPUs provide for more than two modes of operation. What are two possible
uses of these multiple modes? Explain. [16]

2. What is Process Control Block? Explain its structure. [16]

3. Define monitor. What are its characteristics? [16]

4. What are the different LINUX spinlcocks? Explain. [16]

5. Explain about address binding for a user program and discuss multi step processing
of a user program. [16]

6. What is the difference between preemptive and non preemptive scheduling? Explain
an algorithm for each scheduling type. [16]

7. (a) List and explain three blocking methods.

(b) What is the relationship between a pathname and a working directory?
(c) What criteria are important in choosing a file organization? [6+5+5]

8. (a) Discuss the three options available in Windows 2000 for requesting access.
(b) Describe the generic access of Windows 2000.
(c) How is the AES expected to be an improvement over triple DES? [6+5+5]

B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, February 2008

2008 Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University


( Common to Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology)

Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) How would you utilize an existing telephone network for Computer-to-Computer
data communications?
(b) "Bad Timing" is also a problem for OSI reference model. Discuss. [8+8]
2. (a) Television channels are 6MHz wide. How many bits/sec can be sent if four
level digital signals are used? Assume a noiseless channel
(b) How does a virtual circuit differ from a physical circuit? What advantages
would a virtual circuit provide? [8+8]
3. (a) Explain about the various services that the data link layer offers to the upper
(b) Compute the fraction of the bandwidth that is wasted on overhead (headers
and retransmissions) for sliding window protocol using selective repeat on a
heavily loaded 50-kbps satellite channel with data frames consisting of 40
headre and 3960 data bits. ACK frames never occur. NAK frames are 40 bits.
The error rate for data frames is 1 percent, and the error rate for NAK frames
is negligible. The sequence numbers are 8 bits. [8+8]
4. (a) What is the prime difference between a token bus and a token ring?
(b) A large population of ALOHA users manages to generate 50 requests/sec,
including both originals and retransmissions. Time is slotted in the units of
40 msec.
i. What is the chance of success on the first attempt?
ii. What is the probability of exactly k collisions and then a success?
iii. What is the expected number of transmission attempts needed? [4+12]
5. (a) Network layer can provide either connection oriented service or connection less
service. Which one you prefer. Justify your answer.
(b) Define Virtual circuit and Datagram. Compare Virtual circuit subnet with
Datagram Subnet.
(c) Is Virtual circuit same as Physical connection. Comment. [5+8+3]
6. Explain routing in mobile hosts. [16]
7. (a) Why Pseudo header is used in computing TCP Checksum?
(b) Explain how TCP controls congestion? [6+10]
1 of 2
Code No: R05310504 Set No. 4
8. (a) What is Domain? Explain the Internet domain space in the context of DNS.
(b) What is resource record? What is its format?
(c) What are the record types of DNS resource record? [6+5+5]
Merlon Consultancy

Experience : [blink]0 - 2 Years[/blink]


Education : UG - Any Graduate - Any Specialization;Graduation Not Required;Diploma - Any Specialization PG - Any PG Course - Any Specialization;Post Graduation Not Required;Other

Industry Type : BPO/ITES /CRM/Transcription

Functional Area : ITES/BPO/KPO, Customer Service, Ops.

Job Description

Walk in and get spot offers with Allsec Technologies for Outbound voice process.
Walk in Venue: Merlon Consultancy

Dates:6th,7th and 8th September

Time:10:30 AM to 6 PM

Call us for details on interview process at 9940134006/ 9444965426/64586373.

Desired Candidate Profile

Graduates / Diploma holders (10 + 2 + 3 years of education). Those pursuing final year graduation through correspondence are also eligible. 12th pass outs with prior international call center experience will also be considered.

Age-18 to 32 years

Company Profile

Our client, Allsec technologies Ltd is a pure play third party BPO company offering both voice and non voice services on a blended delivery platform. They are looking for Customer Support Officers for their outbound division.Freshers can also walk in

Contact Details

Company Name:Merlon Consultancy


Executive Name:Karthik/Praveen


Merlon Consultancy
No 6
Sengunthar Street
Shenoy Nagar
Chennai,Tamilnadu,INDIA 600030

DotNet Trainees

Shlok Information Systems India Pvt Ltd

Experience:0 - 1 Years


Education:UG - Any Graduate - Any Specialization;Graduation Not Required PG - Any PG Course - Any Specialization;Post Graduation Not Required

Industry Type : IT-Software/ Software Services

Functional Area : Application Programming, Maintenance

Job Description

Real time delivery with the .NET framework including ASP.NET , VB.net. Preferably MS - SQL Server.

Desired Candidate Profile

- B.E/B.Tech, B.Sc, BCA, M.Tech candidates having knowledge of .Net , Asp.Net, VB.Net. Excellent communication skills, Presentation skills and hard working nature is must. Microsoft Certification in .net will be an added advantage.

Company Profile

SHLOK (www.shloklabs.com) is an IT Solution Provider with our offices in Lisbon (Portugal) and Coimbatore (India). Established in 2003 and working exclusively in overseas assignments.

Contact Details

Company Name:Shlok Information Systems India Pvt Ltd

Website : http://www.shloklabs.com

Executive Name : J.Kavi Priya

Address :

Shlok Information Systems India Pvt Ltd
Coimbatore,TAMILNADU,INDIA 641045

Email Address : hr@shloklabs.com

Telephone : 91-0422-4395838
Beware of fraudulent money offers through emails

BEWARE! DON'T get swayed away with illusionary dreams if you receive any email in your inbox assuring you a handsome amount in US dollars or UK pounds from any foreign entity regarding lotteries or any other pretext. The smallest step may snatch your hard earned money, thus Reserve Bank of India (RBI), too, has cautioned consumers against such attempts of phishing.

If you are regular user of Internet and have an email ID, perhaps then you may not fall in the trap of such spams but the new users might easily become prey to easy money making, says a cyber cafe owner.

In fact, these days, fraudulent offers of huge money in foreign exchange are being made through letters/ emails by certain foreign entities or individuals, including Indian residents acting as representatives of such entities or individuals. The offers of huge money in foreign currency are made to resident individuals/entities (including schools/hospitals) on the pretext of helping them in their business/ventures in India. The sender of such mails also, in buttressed words, claims the receiver is the luckiest among others.

Once the contact is established, the entities request for details of bank accounts of the individuals or Indian entity and ask for some amount to be remitted to them as initial deposit/commission so that the offer money could be transferred.

Even copies of fake certificates or deposits receipts purported to have been issued by the Reserve Bank of India are produced by such operators, some experienced Internet surfers underlined.

It is to be mention that following the considerable complaints from across India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has cautioned the people not to fall prey to such fictitious offers of victory in lottery coming through emails, post or couriers asking for your banking details, be it your bank account or the credit/debt card.

The RBI, in a public notice, has appealed people not to make any payment or remittance towards participation in such schemes/offers from unknown entities.

It has been learnt that the remittance in any form towards participation in lottery schemes is prohibited under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. Secondly, through this notice, RBI has made it clear that it does not maintain any account in the name of individuals/companies/trusts in India to hold funds for disbursal.

Using the Windows Vista Activation Wizard

In order to functionally activate Microsoft Windows Vista OS versions using the Windows Vista activation wizard, you need to do the following:

    * Click on the Start button found on the leftmost bottom portion of the desktop
    * Click on the Computer option from the selection
    * Then click on Properties from the list of options
    * Click on the Click Here option in order to functionally activate your Windows Vista OS version (please be advised that in order to do this, you would need to have administrator permission privileges)

Afterwards, you can key in the password or the confirmation code if you are asked to provide your machine with proof of administrator admission privileges. Then, you can choose from the list of options provided by the wizard in order to continue with the activation process. This means you can activate your Microsoft Windows Vista-operated machine online or via phone. But if you choose to activate your Microsoft Windows Vista-based machine online, your OS will only be activated 3 days right after your first attempt of logging on the World Wide Web.

After activating your Microsoft Windows Vista-operated machine, you should keep in mind to set up the security configuration settings of your machine before connecting it to the internet and browsing through the World Wide Web. This will help you prevent malicious software programs from penetrating your system. With this, you should also install a good anti-viral software program which comes bundled with a wide array of security tools. These security tools should include Spyware/Adware/Malware/Virus detection and removal functions together with firewall security options. You should also make it a point to schedule your anti-viral program to regularly update its virus definitions since this would help you avoid new malicious software programs from penetrating your machine.
Distributed Computing - And How it Works

Distributed computing refers to the means by which a single computer program runs in more than one computer at the same time. In particular, the different elements and objects of a program are being run or processed using different computer processors.

Distributed computing is similar to parallel computing and grid computing. Parallel computing, though, refers to running a single program using a minimum of two processors that belong to one computer. Grid computing, on the other hand, refers to a more dedicated distributed computing setup - one whose computer 'members' are especially dedicated to the program being processed.

Distinct Characteristics

In a distributed computing setup, the program runs like it would in a single computer even when it is, in fact, using different computer processors. This means that no single computer carries the entire burden on system resources that running a computer program usually implies.

However, distributed computing is not actually used to lighten the load of an individual computer's processor. It is in fact done to be able to process or run complex and resource-draining programs with greater speed and efficiency. Distributed computing, in effect, can be deemed as an attempt to produce a virtual supercomputer out of hundreds or thousands of individual computers.

Dedicated Servers

The distributed computing setup is usually called a peer-to-peer architecture. In actual fact, however, distributed computing is not peer-to-peer since individual computers do not actually directly communicate with each other. There's at least one dedicated distributed computing management server that coordinates the efforts across the whole network of computers that are contributing their system resources to the collective effort.

In a distributed computing setup, there is one or more servers which contain the blueprint for the coordinated program efforts, the information needed to access member computers, and the applications that will automate distribution of the program processes when such is needed. It is also in the distributed computing administrative servers that the distributed processes are coordinated and combined, and they are where the program outputs are generated.

How Distributive Computing Works

A computer that is part of a distributed computing network usually has a program installed in it that is its direct link to the administrative server or servers. The software remains dormant in the individual computer until such time that the computer's system becomes idle (the user is not using his resources). At this point, the software will be activated and will inform the administrative server about available resources in the computer. The administrative server will respond by sending an application package to the requesting computer. The moment the user has need of his own resources again, the management server will immediately relinquish the resources that it has been monopolizing, back to the owner of the computer.
Converting FLV to MPEG

It is quite simple to convert FLV files to MPEG; all that is required is conversion software. The good news is that there are plenty of free conversion software products available. For power and professional users, you can also find commercial software that includes extensive bells and whistles.

While software products differ, for the most part, conversion is simple and only takes a short period of time for a full conversion of FLV to MPEG to take place. Most software products require you to launch the program and choose the type of conversion you would like. Besides converting FLV files to MPEG, many products allow you to choose other conversions such as FLV to AVI, WMV, etc.

Once the type of conversion has been selected, you can select the FLV file to be converted and choose the output folder of the new converted file. Additionally, many software products allow you to select specific settings such as output video height and width, frame rate, video bit rate, audio bit rate, etc. Once your settings and all information has been inputted, you usually just need to hit enter and wait for the conversion to take place. A confirmation from the software should notify you once the conversion is complete and whether or not it was a success or if it encountered any errors.
Windows Remote Access is a set of components which allow remote users to access centralized computing resources.

Windows Remote Access consists of the following components:

Remote Access Clients

Computers which are running a Windows operating system creates either a dial-up or virtual private network connection to the remote access server. The remote access client can use either a manually configured connection or a Connection Manager (CM) profile.
Remote Access Server

A computer running a member of the Windows 2000 Server or Windows Server 2003 families and the Routing and Remote Access service configured for Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) authentication.


A computer running a member of the Windows 2000 or Windows Server 2003 families and the Internet Authentication Service (IAS).

Accounts Database

For Windows 2000 or Windows Server 2003-based networks, the Active Directory directory service is used as the accounts database, which stores user accounts and their dial-in properties.

Remote Access Policy

On the server running IAS, a remote access policy that provides authorization and connection constraints are configured for remote access connections.
How do I Setup a Remote Desktop Web

Remote Desktop Web Connection is a useful alternative to the regular Remote Desktop because it can be used without installing any software on the client machine.

Remote Desktop Web Connection is able to do this because it runs within a web browser such as Internet Explorer. The web browser must support Active-X controls to support Remote Desktop Web Connection.

Steps to Setup Remote Desktop Web Connection

    * Click on Start.
    * Go to Control Panel.
    * Select Add or Remove Programs.
    * Go to Add/ Remove windows components.
    * Select Internet Information services( IIS) and click on Details.
    * Click on the World Wide Web service.
    * Now select Remote Desktop Web Connection and click ok.
    * Now in click next in the Windows Components Wizard dialog box.
    * Now open Internet Services Manager.
    * Expand the folder hierarchy until you reach the local computer name\Web Sites\Default Web Site\tsweb folder.
    * Now right click on the tsweb folder and then click Properties.
    * Click the Dircetory Security tab on the Properties dialog box.
    * In Anonymous Access and Authentication Control, click Edit.
    * Check the Anonymous Access check box on the Authentication Methods dialog box, and then click OK twice.
How do I Configure NTFS Quotas?

Use disk quotas to manage storage growth in distributed environments. Disk quotas allow you to allocate available disk space to users based on the files and folders that they own. Windows 2003 disk quotas track and control disk space usage on a per-user, per-partition basis.

Characteristics of Windows 2003 Server Disk Quotas

    * Disk usage is based on file and folder ownership. When a user copies or saves a new file to an NTFS partition or takes ownership of a file on an NTFS partition, windows 2003 changes the disk space for the file against the user's quota limit.
    * Disk quotas don't use disk compression. Users are changed for each uncompressed byte, regardless of how much hard disk space is actually needed.
    * Free space for applications is based on the Quota limit. When you enable disk quotas, the free space that windows 2003 reports to applications for the partitions is the amount of space remaining within the users quota limit.
    * Windows 2003 track disk quota independently for each NTFS partition, even if the partitions reside on the same physical hard disk.

Enforcing Disk Quotas for All Users

To enforce quota limits for all users, perform the following:

    * In the limit disk space set warning level to boxes, enter the values for the limit and warning level that you want to set.
    * Select the deny disk space to users exceeding quota limit check box.

Setting Disk Quotas for Individuals:

    * In the properties dialog box for a disk on the quota tab click the Quota Entries button.
    * In the Quota Entries for dialog box create an entry by clicking New quota entry on the quota menu and then selecting a user.
    * Configure the Disk space limit and the warning level for the individual user.
How are Active Directories used?

you are a computer administrator for a large corporation or organization, you can easily update all end users computers with new software, patches, files, etc simply by updating one object in a forest or tree.

Because each object fits into a set schema and has specific attributes, a network administrator can easily clear a person on a set tree or instantly give access to some users for certain applications or deny access to certain users for others. The Microsoft servers use trust to determine whether or not access should be allowed. Two types of trust that Microsoft active directories incorporate are transitive trusts and one way non transitive trusts. A transitive trust is when there is a trust that goes further than two domains in a set tree, meaning two entities are able to access each others domains and trees.

A one way transitive trust is when a user is allowed accessed to another tree or domain, however, the other domain does not allow access to the other domains. This can be summed up as a network administrator and end user. The network administrator can access most trees in the forest including a specific end user's domain. However the end user, while able to access his or her own domain, can not access other trees.

It is important to note that active directories are a great way to organize a large organization or corporation's computers data and network. Without an active directory, most end users would have computers that would need to be updated individually and would not have access to a larger network where data can be processed and reports can be created. While active directories can be extremely technical and require lots of expertise to navigate, they are essential to storing information and data on networks.
Wireless digital-music system offers great sound but no iTunes

Sonos has been around since 2005, when the small company introduced its first multiroom digital music system to glowing reviews (including a CNET.com Editors' Choice Award).

The product was comprised of two base stations and a unique (for the time) remote with a full-color screen that allowed you to wirelessly access your computer's digital music collection as well as a wide range of Internet radio and subscription services.

Since then, Sonos has reconfigured the system a couple of times, swapping in new base stations (or ZonePlayers, as Sonos calls them) and delivering several firmware upgrades that have added navigation improvements and more features, such as compatibility with online music services Rhapsody and Pandora.

The latest tweak to the configuration is the Sonos Bundle 150 (BU150). It adds two slightly retooled ZonePlayers (one's a bit smaller, and both offer 802.11n wireless, which should deliver better range), and keeps the same scroll wheel color-screen controller, the CR100.

The result is, not surprisingly, the same excellent streaming-music experience Sonos has delivered for the better part of three years.

That said, we're disappointed that Sonos hasn't upped the ante on features--or dropped the price (it's still $1,000 for a two-room system). For instance: the $230 Apple TV and $400 Logitech Squeezebox Duet can connect to a home network directly via Wi-Fi, while the Sonos architecture still requires the first base station (or a $100 ZoneBridge accessory) to be wired to your home network.

rentals on the Apple product (plus compatibility with DRM-encoded iTunes music purchases) and access to a wider range of online music services (including free offerings from Last.fm, Live Music Archive, and Slacker) on the Logitech. (Note: Last.fm and CNET are both subsidiaries of CBS.)

That's not to say that the Sonos Digital Music System isn't a great audio streamer--you could pay far more for "whole home audio" systems and get something that's much harder to use and far less flexible--but Sonos needs to kick it up a notch if it wants to further distinguish itself from its increasingly savvy competitors who are offering multiroom-capable systems that are good enough for most people.

The basic components

There are three main components of the Sonos Digital Music System: two ZonePlayer base stations--one ZP120, one ZP90--and one CR100 Controller (the remote control). Each one is available separately as well; additional ZP120s are $500, the ZP90 is $350, and the CR100 goes for $400--so the $1,000 price tag of the BU130 bundle represents a $250 savings versus buying them a la carte.

Take one look at the silver-and-white color scheme (and that scroll wheel on the remote), and you get the idea that Sonos wants you to think that its understated sleek components would fit right into Apple's iPod line--and they would. We just wish a black option was available, as well.

The ZonePlayer ZP120 houses a fully fledged, 55-watt-per-channel, Class-D digital amplifier and weighs 5 pounds. Its die-cast, matte-aluminum enclosure feels far more solid and substantive than most of today's all-plastic consumer electronics.

It sports two pairs of high-quality speaker binding posts, one set of analog stereo inputs (for attaching and playing any external device through the Sonos system), a subwoofer output, and a built-in two-port Ethernet switch. Onboard buttons are limited to three--volume up/down and mute--because the main functions are controlled either by the CR100 remote or by a Windows or Mac computer on your home network.

The ZP120 replaces the similar ZP100 ZonePlayer; however, it weighs half as much, and fills out at a smaller 3.5-inch high by 7.3-inch wide by 8.15-inch deep footprint--about the size of seven DVD cases stacked on top of one another. The reduced size is welcome, but we were miffed that the ZP120 retains its predecessor's price even though it cuts down on the features: the Ethernet ports are reduced from four to two, and there's no analog audio output (for connecting to external amplifiers or AV receivers).

With its built-in amp and speaker terminals, the ZP120 needs only a pair of speakers connected to fill a room with music--no other audio equipment is required. (Sonos offers the SP100 speakers, but nearly any set of speakers will suffice.) But the ZP90 ZonePlayer is intended for those rooms where there's already an audio system in place. Just about anything will do--a tabletop radio, a mini-system, an iPod speaker system, or a full-fledged AV receiver--so long as it has an auxiliary line-in jack.

Because it lacks the built-in amplifier, the ZonePlayer ZP90 is smaller than its big brother; it measures just 2.9 by 5.4-inches square and weighs a mere 1.5 pounds. As a result, it can fit in plenty of tight spots that the larger ZonePlayer can't. The front panel offers the same sparse volume controls, but the ZP90's tiny backside is chock-full of jacks: in addition to analog stereo inputs and outputs, there are also two digital audio outputs (one coaxial, one optical) for single-wire all-digital connections. Two Ethernet jacks provide network connectivity. (As far as we can tell, the ZP90 is identical to its predecessor, the ZP80, except for the upgrade to faster 802.11n wireless.)

Tying the system together is the CR100 Sonos Controller. The wireless remote control is 4-inches wide by 6.5-inches long and just an inch deep, and its front face is dominated by a 3.5-inch color LCD screen and a scroll wheel that looks as if it was ripped straight off an iPod. The remote is designed to be operated with both hands, but the scroll wheel necessitates only 11 buttons--volume controls are on the left, three context-sensitive keys are under the LCD, and six keys (play/pause, track up, track down, zones, back, and music) flank the scroll wheel on the right.

Unlike the ambidextrous iPod (and single-hand Logitech Squeezebox Controller), the right-side orientation of the control wheel might bother lefties. Likewise, some users will initially fight the urge to let their fingers do the walking--the LCD is not a touch screen.

But those are quibbles with an otherwise excellent remote that combines the ease of use of an iPod with a larger and easier-to-read screen. Navigation is simple and intuitive, and the screen displays album art for files and music services to support that function. Another nice touch: the hard keys' backlight automatically kicks in when activated in a dark room.

The biggest issue with the remote is battery life. The remote conserves power by automatically "sleeping" after a few minutes of inactivity, then it reawakens as soon as it's picked up. The battery is rechargeable, of course, with the included AC adapter (a more convenient cradle charger, the Sonos CC100, is available separately for $50).

And you'd be wise to keep the remote attached to the charger when it's not in use--for instance, after we frequently used the remote for one day, its battery charge was nearly halfway depleted. But the battery isn't removable, and--like all other rechargeable batteries--it will eventually struggle to keep a charge after a few years of rigorous usage. (In the unlikely event that it dies during the 12-month warranty period, Sonos will replace the remote for free; thereafter, it'll cost you $100.)

Cognizant CTS Walkin On 30th Aug-31st Aug 08 at Hyderabad

Experience Required: [blink]4 - 7 Years[/blink]

Job Location : Hyderabad

Company Name: Cognizant (CTS)

Skills Required: Java

Walk-in Date : 30 August 2008 - 31 August 2008

Walk-in Time : 09:00 a.m - 02:00 p.m

Job Description :

Java Associate \ Senior Associate

- Strong Core Java fundamentals(Including Collections, Exceptions, Concept of Interfaces abstract classes, Access specifies, Constructors, JDBC, Threading etc)
- Good practical knowledge on JSP, HTML, JavaScript, Servelets
- Understanding of projects - Clear understanding of projects worked on and business implications and benefits
- SDLC : Good understanding of different phases
- OOPs - Practical understanding of concepts and ability to use them in different situations
- Design : Good exposure to Design patterns
- Good practical exposure to EJBs
- Practical exposure to one Web server and one app server
- Working knowledge on at least one standard data base
- Good Communication skills

Walkin Venue :

Cognizant Technology Solutions
Vanenburg IT Park, IInd phase, Orion Block IIIrd floor
# 17, Software Units Layout, Madhapur,
Hyderabad 500 081
Choose an E-Commerce Product

What is ecommerce?

Ecommerce can be described as a commerce conducted electronically. It is the whole process of being able to make a sale of the product over the World Wide Web.
Electronic commerce that is conducted between businesses is referred to as Business-to-business or B2B. B2B can be open to all interested parties (e.g. commodity exchange) or limited to specific, pre-qualified participants (private electronic market).
Electronic commerce is generally considered to be the sales aspect of e-business. It also consists of the exchange of data to facilitate the financing and payment aspects of the business transactions.

How does one go about choosing an ecommerce product?

It is my observation that while selecting an ecommerce product (www.ritecart.co.uk) most of the customers seem to be asking themselves the following set of questions
· How will it appear on the customer side?
· Will it be an attractive website?
· Will it display all of my products?
· Can I use open source and do some developments specific to my requirement?

These questions are valid and are important but these questions should be asked only after the selection of product is done. It is very important for business, which are for a long haul to really look for ROI (Return of Investment) from their ecommerce product (www.ritecart.co.uk).
Before selection of any product, it is very useful to list down why you need a product or software, in this case ecommerce software?
Some of the answers will be/can be

· Increase presence in Online market and thereby have more sales
· Introduce a new channel of business- Have a new online channel for selling goods
· Establish Brand name, making future rollout of products/commodities easier
· Simplify management of all sales and inventories
· Increase productivity by integrating both Online and Offline model
· Increase visibility of the entire business operations by integrating both online and offline models together
· Be competitive, Just because a neighbor doing it!!!

I like the last one, because that way, one doesn't have to really think hard but to follow his neighbor!!
Anyways, once one has his reasons chalked out, he would have also realized that this is a true line of business and needs much more investigation, investment and business initiative to make it a real success.

Online business can be only successful as successful as the tool is (the ecommerce product). To draw a comparison, one may want to travel 80 miles in an hr and may be really trying hard but that ain't be possible with a bullock cart or may be even with a horse wagon. One would atleast need a car to make that happen.
Coming back to success, success of the ecommerce product  would lie on how the product fares with all of the following aspects.

1. Ease of configuration
2. Ability to Scale
3. Useful latest features
4. Available marketing tools with the product
5. Ability to analyze data (analytics, not only google analytics!!)
6. Reports
7. Integration (with other modules, Like epos with near realtime online/offline synchronization of data and other packaged application )
8. Customer Service
9. Technical Support
10. Technical Implementation Aspects
11. Build vs Buy


Thats good thinking by Indian

Thanks for the Post

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MBA Abroad: Comparison of MBA Destinations

With universities from so many countries aggressively marketing their MBA degree in India, it often becomes difficult to decide which should be your final destination. While considering this, it is important to remember that the presentations and seminars conducted by the foreign universities are purely marketing exercises, and would reveal only the rosy picture about the universities. In such a scenario, it becomes crucial to make an objective assessment of the various options you have. Finally, it has to be your decision, as you are the only one being affected by it. We can help you decide by presenting a few facts, and throwing up the criteria that you ought to consider.

1. Eligibility

This is the first thing to look at. The requirements vary with each university, and there's always some flexibility in the system. However, the generally accepted norms are as follows:

US/Canada - Min. 4 yrs education after 10+2
Australia/NZ - 3-year graduation accepted
UK - 3-year graduation accepted

US/Canada - Essential
Australia/NZ - Not required for most B-schools
UK - Recommended

Work experience
US/Canada - Recommended/Reqd for most schools
Australia - Essential
UK - Essential

2. Your potential

How realistically you can assess yourself counts a lot. With some introspection and self-analysis, you should be able to pinpoint your strengths and weaknesses, and decide where you're headed for.

If you think you have the calibre to get into the top B-schools like Harvard and Wharton, the choice is easy. In addition to the top US B-schools, you can also consider the best European schools like London Business School and INSEAD, France. The advantage of Europe is that you complete your MBA in a year. But of course, it's difficult to match the might of the Harvard Business School.

A mid-tier B-school in the US is still better than most mid-tier B-schools in other parts of the world. So if you consider yourself to be above average but not top of the league, the U.S. should be your first choice.

If you're just average or slightly below, and keen on getting a global MBA degree, it'll probably make more sense to look at options other than the U.S., viz. Canada, Australia, or New Zealand. Of course, you need to look at the other factors also.

3. Job Prospects

How realistically you can assess yourself counts a lot. With some introspection and self-analysis, you should be able to pinpoint your strengths and weaknesses, and decide where you're headed for.

Chances of employment
Australia - Fair
Canada - Good
New Zealand - Fair
U.K. - Fair
U.S.A. - Good

Work Permit
Australia - Not so easy
Canada - Easy
New Zealand - Fair
U.K. - For 2 years
U.S.A. - Easy

4. Life after MBA

What you intend to do after completing your MBA has a strong bearing on your choice of a destination.

If you've decided that you'll stay back and do a job, you do not have much choice beyond the U.S. and Canada. These are the only two countries where you can get unconditional employment. However, getting a job is not always easy.

Getting a work permit in Australia is very difficult.

The UK has recently allowed international MBA students to work there for a limited period of two years provided they get a job.

If you're keen on coming back, or have certain obligations (like a family business) which compel you to return, you could choose any of the countries that best suits your budget, time, and temperament.

If you are undecided on this, U.S. or Canada are still the best choices. You get the opportunity to work there, and can always return if you so wish.

5. Cost

The tuition fees may vary greatly depending on the institute. We here compare the approximate average expenses of doing an MBA in various countries.

Cost Figures in Indian Rupees (Lakhs)

Tuition Fees (full cost)
Australia - 8.00
Canada - 9.30
New Zealand - 7.00
U.K. - 8.5
U.S. (Public) - 10.35
U.S. (Private) - 19.35

Living Costs (annual)
Australia - 4.00
Canada - 3.10
New Zealand - 2.50
U.K. - 4.5
U.S. (Public) - 5.40
U.S. (Private) - 5.40

Australia - 12-18 months
Canada - 18-24 months
New Zealand - 12-15 months
U.K. - 1 year
U.S. (Public) - 2 years
U.S. (Private) - 2 years

Total Cost
Australia - 12.00
Canada - 15.50
New Zealand - 9.5
U.K. - 13.00
U.S. (Public) - 21.15
U.S. (Private) - 30.15


* All costs shown are in Indian Rupees
* Exchange rates used are:
1 US Dollar = Rs. 46
1 UK Pound = Rs. 80
1 Australian Dollar = Rs. 32
1 Canadian Dollar = Rs. 32
1 New Zealand Dollar = Rs. 24

Convert into the latest conversion rates.

6. Life, as you see it

For many people, this is the bottomline. We've known students who've chosen New Zealand over anywhere else, because they wanted a "relaxed" life. However, this is totally a matter of individual perception. Doing an MBA in the U.S. or U.K. is quite a demanding and strenuous proposition, whereas the scene in South Pacific is quite different. The choice is yours!

Ph.D. in Business Administration
Major in Information Systems
at Earl G. Graves School of Business
Admissions 2009

The Programme

The Information Science & Systems Department is one of the departments in the Earl G. Graves School of Business & Management at Morgan State University. All programs at all levels in the Graves School are AACSB accredited.
The School is housed in a state-of-the-art building with ultra modern classrooms that have the latest multimedia presentation facilities. The Department offers courses at the Undergraduate level, Graduate level and the Ph. D. level.

The Ph.D. in Information Systems program prepares graduates for careers in teaching, research and consulting in various functional areas of business. Graduates of the program are expected to make significant contributions to the advancement of knowledge of business practices through research and consulting and to disseminate such knowledge through their teaching.


A Masters Degree in Business from an AACSB-accredited college or university with a GPA of 3.0 or higher. Students without such backgrounds will be required to take MBA level business courses at an AACSB-accredited institution in order to ensure adequate preparation prior to enrollment in required doctoral courses. Outstanding applicants who only possess a Bachelors degree may be considered for admission, if they possess a GPA of at least 3.5.

A satisfactory score on the Graduate Management Admissions Test (GMAT) taken no more than three years prior to applying.

For students from non-English speaking countries, a minimum score of 550 on the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL). The exam must not have been taken more than three years prior to applying. This requirement may be waived for students who have had at least a year of university-level education in English.

Three completed recommendation forms from people who are qualified to comment on the applicant's academic preparation and potential for success in the Doctoral Program.


An essay on professional plans and what role the doctorate will play in attaining them.

Additional International Student Forms


Admission into the Doctoral Program is in the fall semester only. The deadline for applications is February 1, 2009. All applications must be complete and include all supporting documents and test scores before they can be considered.

Funding Options

Graduate Assistantships

Teaching Assistantships

Graduate Fellowships

Federal Student Loans

Contact the Ph.D. Program Director / Graduate School for other sources

KPMG Scholarship

Contact Details

For any query, contact: -
Leyland Lucas,
Ph.D. Program Director,
Earl G. Graves School of Business & Management,
Morgan State University,
McMechen Hall, Room 634,
1700 East Cold Spring Lane,
Baltimore MD 21251
Telephone: (443) 885-3007 / (443) 885-3160
E-mail: leyland.lucas@morgan.edu
Website: http://is.morgan.edu/
URL: http://www.morgan.edu/academics/SBM/busadmn/SBMPHDProgram.asp
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