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Microprocessors and Microcontrollers ECE
BRANCH : ECE                 YEAR/SEM : III / V

PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What are EI & DI instructions of 8085?
2. What is ALE?
3. Define stack.
4. What do you mean by input port & output port?
5. List the flags of 8085.
PART - B (16 Marks)

1. Draw & explain the architecture of 8085 microprocessor    (16)
2. Draw the Pin Diagram of 8085 and explain the function of various signals (16)
3. Explain the instruction classification & instruction sets    (16)
4. Write a program to sort the numbers in ascending and descending order. (16)
5. Draw the timing diagram of the following Instructions    (16)

PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What are the types of serial data communication?
2. What is baud rate?
3. What is USART?
4. List the Software and Hardware interrupts of 8085?
5. What are the features of 8279?
6. List some of the features of INTEL 8259 (Programmable Interrupt Controller)
7. What are the control words of 8251A and what are its functions?

PART - B (16 Marks)

1. With neat sketch explain the functions of 8255 PPI.    (16)
2. With neat sketch explain the functions of 8251.     (16)
3. With neat sketch explain the function of DMA controller.   (16)
4. With neat sketch explain the function of Programmable Interrupt Controller. (16)
5. With neat sketch explain the function of Keyboard and display controller. (16)
6. With neat sketch explain the function of A/D converter.    (16)
7 With neat sketch explain the function of D/A converter.    (16)

PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What is addressing?
2. What are the modes in which 8086 can operate?
3. List the segment registers of 8086.
4. What are the Index registers of 8086?
5. What is NMI?
6. What are the flags of 8086?
PART - B (16 Marks)
1. Draw the architectural block diagram of 8086.                                                         (16)
2. Explain with examples addressing modes of 8086 processor.                                    (16)
3. Draw & explain the modes of operation of 8086.                 (16)
4. Explain the instruction set of 8086 with examples.                                           (16)

PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What is a Microcontroller?
2. What is the difference between microprocessor & microcontroller?
3. List the addressing modes of 8051.
4. Explain the instructions used to access external RAM.
5. List the features of 8051 microcontroller.
6. Explain the interrupts of 8051 microcontroller
PART - B (16 Marks)
1.With neat sketch explain the architecture of 8051 microcontroller.  (16)
2. Draw the Pin Diagram of 8051 and explain the function of various signals. (16)
3. List the various Instructions available in 8051 microcontroller.   (16)
4. Explain the memory structure of 8051       (16)
5. Explain the I/O port structure of 8051.       (16)
6. Draw the pin configuration of 8051, explain each pin.    (16)


PART - A (2 Marks)
1. What is the function of program counter in 8051?
2. Write about the jump statement?
3. Write about CALL statement in 8051.
4. Explain the operating mode0 of 8051 serial ports
5. Explain the operating mode2 of 8051 serial ports.
6. Explain the mode3 of 8051 serial ports.
PART - B (16 Marks)
1. Explain the instruction set of 8051.                     (16)
2. Draw the format of SCON register. Explain different bits in it.                                    (16)
3. Write an assembly language program to find "Fibonacci Series" of "N" given term.  (16)
4. Write an assembly language program for stepper motor control.                                  (16)
5. Explain the interfacing concept  of keyboard  with 8051.                                             (16)
6. Explain the interfacing concept of ADC &  DAC  with controller.                              (16)

GE2211 Environmental Science and Engineering question bank anna university

Subject Code : GE2211
Subject Name : Environmental Science and Engineering



1. Define Environmental Science.
2. What is meant by deforestation?
3. State the environmental effects of extracting & using mineral resources.
4. State the need for public awareness for solving environmental problems.
5. What is geothermal energy?
6. State any two problems caused by the construction of dams.
7. Write any two functions of forest.
8. What are the advantages of conjunctive uses of water?
9. Define environmental impact statement.
10. What is soil fertility?
11. Explain soil leaching.
12. What is soil erosion? How can it be controlled?
13. Define desertification.
14. Define Overgrazing. What are the effects of overgrazing?
15. Distinguish between water logging & Salinity.

PART - B (16 marks)

1. Explain Renewable & non-Renewable energy resources with examples. (16)

2. (a) Compare nuclear power with coal. (6) (b) Write a note on energy conservation. (4)
What is Solar Space heating? Explain (6)

3. (a) What are the causes of soil erosion & deforestation? Explain in detail (8)
(b) Discuss the consequences of overdrawing surface and Ground water. (8)

4. a)Write briefly on any four alternate source of energy (8)
b) Explain effects of construction of dam on tribal people (8)

5. (a) Write the effects of extracting and using mineral resources. (4)
(b) Explain the scope & importance of Environment. (8)
Enumerate the benefits & draw backs of building of dams. (4)

6. (a) What are the effects of modern Agriculture? (8)
(b) Discuss the causes of land degradation. (8)



1. Define Producers.
2. Name the four ecosystems.
3. What is Ecological succession?
4. What are food chain & food Webs?
5. What is the classification of biotic component of ecosystems?
6. Define Biodiversity.
7. What are the advantages& disadvantages of in-situ& ex-situ conservation of biodiversity?
8. Enumerate the human activities which destroy the biodiversity.
9. Write note on endemic species.
10. Define Biosphere.
11. Define consumers & Classify them.
12. What is Biomes? Give Examples.
13. Define Estuaries.
14. Define poaching.
15. Define Species & Genetic diversity.


1. (a) What is an ecosystem? Describe the structure & function of various components of an ecosystem. (10)
(b) Explain the various threats to biodiversity. (6)

2. (a) Define Ecological pyramids and explain different types of ecological pyramids. (6)
(b) Describe the types, characteristics features, structure& function of
i). Forest ecosystem ii). Aquatic ecosystem (10)

3. (a) Explain In-Situ & Ex-Situ Conservation of Biodiversity (8)
(b) What is meant by value of biodiversity? Explain different values of biodiversity (8)

4. Write briefly on
1. Ecological succession
2. Energy flow through an ecosystem
3. Hot spots of biodiversity ( 4+4+8)

5. (a) What is the biodiversity what are the reasons for decline for biodiversity (10)
(b) Write short notes on: (1) Producers (2) Consumers (3) Decomposers (3 X 2 = 6)


1. Define pollution.
2. Name any four air pollutants, and their sources and impacts.
3. What are point and non-point sources of water pollution?
4. Define hazardous wastes.
5. Write any four major water pollutants.
6. Define photochemical smog.
7. Define floods.
8. Define disasters
9. Write any two causes of soil pollution.
10. Define noise pollution.
11. When a sound causes noise pollution.
12. What are the types of solid waste?

1 (a).Discuss the major air pollutants and their impacts. (8)
(b) Explain the various methods of controlling air pollution. (8)

2. (a) Discuss briefly the disposal of Municipal solid waste management. (8)
(b) Explain the causes, effects and control measures of water pollution. (8)

3. (a) Discuss major air pollutants and their impacts. (6)
(b) What is Thermal pollution and explain their impacts? (6).
What are the sources of radioactive pollution? (4)

4. (a) Explain in detail the role of individual in conservation of natural resources. (8)
(b).Explain the effects nuclear and Radiation pollution. (8)

5. (a) Write a brief note on of thermal pollution. (6)
(b) Discuss the causes, effects & control measures of marine pollution. (10)


1. What are the causes and effects of global warming?
2. What are causes and effects of ozone layer depletion?
3. What is acid rain?
4. Explain the term sustainable development.
5. Define resettlement and rehabilitation.
6. Write note on climate change.
7. Explain green house effect.
8. Write reason for wetland reclamation.
9. Write any four effects of climate change.
10. What is watershed management?


1. (a) Explain forest conservation act.. (8)
(b) Write the factors influence the unsustainable to sustainable development. . (8)

2. (a) Explain nuclear accidents and holocaust. . (8)
(b) Write notes on global warming. . (8)

3. (a) Write a note on watershed management. (4)
(b) Write briefly Bhopal disaster and Chernobyl disaster. (8)
Discuss briefly on environment protection act 1986. (4)

4. (a) Discuss the agenda for sustainable development (8)
(b) Write briefly on nuclear accidents (8)

5. Write briefly on
a. Green House Effect (4) b. Acid Rain (4) c. Rain water Harvesting (6) d. Climate Change (2)


1. Define Population explosion
2. Define ZPG (Zero Population Growth)
3. Briefly account on human rights.
4. Define Population equilibrium
5. Explain total fertility rate
6. Define population equation
7. State how environment and human health are related
8. State the role of information technology in environment.
9. List the problems of population growth.
10. What is AIDS? How to prevent it?


1. (a) Explain the role of IT in environment and human health. (12)
(b) Write short note on Value Education (4)

2. (a) Write briefly on implementation of family planning programme. (6)
(b) Write a note on AIDS in developing country (4)
Discuss the factors influencing the family size (6)

3. (a) Population explosion affects the environment seriously - discuss. (8) (b) Deterioration of environment leads to deterioration of human health - Justify(8)

4. (a) Write a note on the following in relation to human population & environment
i). Woman Child Welfare. (4)
ii). Human Rights. (4)

(b) Write briefly on:
i) Population momentum. (4)
ii) Population Profile. (4)

5. (a) Discuss the growth of population can be successfully implemented . (6)
(b) Discuss the factors influencing the family size. (4)
Discuss on the steps taken in India to prevent AIDS. (6)
2013 Examination Results

HSC March 2013 Examination Results Expected on 9th May 2013.

All the best for students...

Official Release in this Link  -   www.tnresults.nic.in

Mercedes-Benz GLA Class concept car

Mercedes has unveiled its mini-SUV, the GLA Class concept

The interior images reveal an SUV with modern futuristic touches and upholstery done in beige. The dashboard scheme though looks a tad similar to the new A-Class.

The interior images reveal an SUV with modern futuristic touches and upholstery done in beige.

255/45 section rubber wrapped on 20-inch wheels and muscular wheel arches define the side profile. Notably, there are LED lights on the roof rails.
Questions :

1. The earliest evidence of silver in India is found in the
Harappan culture
Chalcolithic cultures of Western India
Vedic texts
silver punch-marked coins

2. The Hunter Commission was appointed after the
Black-hole incident
Jalianwallabah massacre
Uprising of 1857
Partition of Bengal

3. The historian Barani refused to consider the state in India under Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because
the majority of the population did not follow Islam
the Muslim theologists were often disregarded
the Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing his own regulations
religious freedom was accorded to non-Muslims

4. The last opportunity to avoid the partition of India was lost with the rejection of
Cripps Mission
Rajagopalachari Formula
Cabinet Mission
Wavell Plan

5. Assertion [A] : The effect of labour participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge of the early 1930s was weak. Reason [R] : The labour leaders considered the ideology of Indian National Congress as bourgeois and reactionary.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true

6. Assertion [A] : Muhammad bin Tughlaq left Delhi, and, for two years lived in a camp called Swarga-dwari. Reason [R] : At that time, Delhi was revaged by a form of plague and many people died.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true

7. At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of British India came forward with a plan for a united and independent existence?

8. While delivering the presidential address, the Congress President who advocated the introduction of Roman script for Hindi language was
Mahatma Gandhi
Jawaharlal Nehru
Abul Kalam Azad
Subhash Chandra Bose

9. The Raga which is sung early in the morning is

10. Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress 1. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the Congress. 2. C. R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of the Congress 3. The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was Alan Octavian Hume 4. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894 Which of the statements are correct?
1 and 3
2 and 4
2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
Questions :

1. Which one of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one State in India?

2. The Palk Bay lies between.
Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat.
Gulf fo Mannar and Bay of Bengal.
Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

3. Which one of the following areas of India produces largest amount of cotton?
North western India and Gangetic West Bengal
North western and western India
Western and southern India
Plains of northern India

4. Local supply of coal is not available to
TISCO, Jamshedpur
VSL, Bhadravat
HSL, Durgapur
HSL, Bhila

5. "From Aceh in the far north west to Torres Strait in the east is 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghdad. The archipelago has 14,000 islands, some mere equatorial rocks, others some of the largest in the world." This description best fits
West Indies

6. Which one of the following is cultivated by transplanting seedlings?

7. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Teak : Jammu and Kashmir
Deodar : Madhya Pradesh
Sandalwood : Kerala
Sundari : West Bengal

8. The canal-carrying capacity of Farrakka is
75,000 Cusecs
70,000 Cusecs
40,000 Cusecs
35,000 Cusecs

9. Which one of the following factors is reponsible for the change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean?
Indian Ocean is 'half an ocean
Indian Ocean has Monsoon drift
Indian Ocean is a land-locked ocean
Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity

10. Consider the following natural phenimena : 1. Terrestrial heating 2. Reflection of light 3. Refraction of light 4. Diffraction of light Due to which of these phenomena is mirage formed?
1 and 2
2, 3 and 4
1 and 3
4 only

1.      In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found ?

            (a)        Nilgiri Hills

            (b)        Nicobar Islands

            (c)        Spiti Valley

            (d)        Lakshadweep Islands

            ANSWER (B)

2.      Consider the following statements :

            1.         The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President ot India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.

            2.         As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (D)

3.      In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following:

            (a)        Calcutta

            (b)        Madras

            (c)        Bombay

            (d)        Delhi

            ANSWER (B)


4.      With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:

            1.         An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a degree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.

            2.         Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (A)


5.      With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:

            1.         The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.

            2.         The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (D)

6.      Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen   percent   of  the   total   number   of

            (a)        90th

            (b)        91st

            (c)        92nd

            (d)        93rd

            ANSWER (B)


7.  Consider the following statements :

            1.         Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri.

            2.         The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)   Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (B)


8.      With    reference    to    Union    Government, consider the following statements :

            1.         The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.

            2.         The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (A)


9.      Consider the following statements:

            1.         The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour.

            2.         The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (C)


10.      Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety ?

            (a)        Ministry of Science and Technology

            (b)        Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

            (c)        Ministry of Environment and Forests

            (d)        Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

            ANSWER (C)

1.      Which one of the following pairs of countries fought wars over a region called Ogaden ?

            (a)        Eritrea and Sudan

            (b)        Ethiopia and Somalia

            (c)        Kenya and Somalia

            (d)        Ethiopia and Sudan

            ANSWER (B)

2.      In the middle of the year 2008 the Parliament of which one of the following countries became the first in the world to enact a Climate Act by passing "The Climate Change Accountability Bill"?

            (a)        Australia

            (b)        Canada

            (c)        Germany

            (d)        Japan

            ANSWER (B)

3.      Which one among the following has the highest energy ?

            (a)        Blue light

            (b)        Green light

            (c)        Red light

            (d)        Yellow light

            ANSWER (A)

4.      In   the   context   of   independent   India's economy, which one of the following was the earliest event to take place ?

            (a)        Nationalisation of Insurance companies

            (b)        Nationalisation of State Bank of India

            (c)        Enactment of Banking Regulation Act

            (d)        Introduction of First Five-Year Plan

            ANSWER (C)

5.      Consider the following pairs :

            Automobile Manufacturer        Headquarters

            1.         BMW AG            :           USA

            2.         Daimler AG        :           Sweden

            3.         Renault S A.      :           France

            4.         Volkswagen AG    :       Germany

            Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

            (a)        1, 2 and 3

            (b)        3 and 4

            (c)        4 only

            (d)        1, 2 and 4

            ANSWER (B)

6.      Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period ?

            (a)        Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

            (b)        Varahagiri Venkatagiri

            (c)        Giani Zail Singh

            (d)        Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma

            ANSWER (C)

7.      Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

            List I (Person)    List II (Organization)

            A.         Anil Agarwal      1.         Gujarat Heavy Chemicals Ltd.

            B.         Gautam H. Singhania      2.         Raymond Ltd.

            C.         Sanjay Dalmia   3.         Vedanta Resources

            D.         Venugopal Dhoot            4.         Videocon Group

            Code :

                        A          B          C          D

            (a)        3          1          2          4

            (b)        4          1          2          3

            (c)        3          2          1          4

            (d)        4          2          1          3

            ANSWER (C)

8.      To integrate cultural leaders into its meetings, which one of the following gives "Crystal Award"

            (a)        Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation

            (b)        International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

            (c)        World Health Organization

            (d)        World Economic Forum

            ANSWER (D)


9.      In India, which one of the following States has the largest inland saline wetland?

            (a)        Gujarat

            (b)        Haryana

            (c)        Madhya Pradesh

            (d)        Rajasthan

            ANSWER (D)

10.      Consider the following statements:

            1.         MMTC Limited is India's largest international trading organization.

            2.         Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited has been set up by MMTC jointly with the Government of Orissa.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

            (a)        1 Only

            (b)        2 Only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (C)
1.        Which   one   of  the   following   pairs   is  not correctly matched ?

                        City      River

            (a)        Berlin    Rhine

            (b)        London  Thames

            (c)        New York           Hudson

            (d)        Vienna  Danube

            ANSWER (A)


2.        Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I     List II

(Famous Temple)           (State)

            A.         Vidyashankara temple    1. Andhra Pradesh

            B.         Rajarani temple 2. Karnataka

            C.         Kandariya Mahadeo        3. Madhya Pradesh

            D.         Bhimesvara Temple        4. Orissa


                        A          B          C          D

            (a)        2          4          3          1

            (b)        2          3          4          1

            (c)        1          4          3          2

            (d)        1          3          4          2

            ANSWER (A)

3.        Consider the following statements :

1.         In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the western margins of continents within the trade wind belt.

2.         In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (A)

4.        Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Geographic feature)                      List II (Country)

            A.         Great Victoria Desert      1.         Australia

            B.         Grand Canyon                2.         Canada   

            C.         Lake Winnipeg   3.         New Zealand

            D.         Southern Alps                4.         USA

            Code :

            A          B          C          D

            (a)        1          2          4          3

            (b)        1          4          2          3

            (c)        3          2          4          1

            (d)        3          4          2          1

            ANSWER (B)

5.        Consider the following statements :

1.         Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.

2.         Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.

Which  of the statements given  abova is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (D)

6.        Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India ?

(a)        Beas

(b)        Chenab

(c)        Ravi

(d)        Sutlej

            ANSWER (D)

7.        Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttled are launched is located on the coast of

(a)        Florida

(b)        Virginia

(c)        North Carolina

(d)        South Carolina

            ANSWER (A)


8.        At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important river flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea ?

(a)        Amarkantak

(b)        Badrinath

(c)        Mahabaleshwar

(d)        Nasik

            ANSWER (A)


9.        Who of the following scientists proved that the stars with mass less than 1.44 times the mass of the Sun end up as White Dwarfs when they die ?

(a)        Edwin Hubble

(b)        S. Chandrashekhar

(c)        Stephen Hawking

(d)        Steven Weinberg

            ANSWER (B)

10.        Which one of the following brings out the publication called "Energy Statistics" from time to time?

(a)        Central Power Research Institute

(b)        Planning Commission

(c)        Power Finance Corporation Ltd.

(d)        Central Statistical Organization

            ANSWER (D)

With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt?

            (a)        Review of Centres-States relations

            (b)        Review of Delimitation Act

            (c)        Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues

            (d)        Price-reforms in the oil sector

            ANSWER (D)


         Mahamastakabhisheka, a great religious event, is associated with and done for who of the following?

            (a)        Bahubali

            (b)        Buddha

            (c)        Mahavir

            (d)        Nataraja

            ANSWER (A)

       Consider the following pairs:

                        Tradition                                              State

            1.         Gatka a traditional marital art               :     Kerala

            2.         Madhubani, a traditional painting           :     Bihar

            3.         Singhwy Khababs Sindhu Darshan        :     Jammu and Kashmir


            Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched:

(a)           1 and 2 only

(b)           3 only

(c)           2 and 3 only

(d)           1, 2 and 3


         Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

                        List I List II

                        (Famous Person)                                 (Well-Known as)

            A.         Anna Hazare                                       1.   Lawyer

            B.         Deepak Parekh                                   2.   Banker

            C.         GVK Reddy                                         3.   Gandhian and Social activist

            D.         Harish Salve                                       4.   Industrialist


                        A             B             C             D

            (a)        1             2             4             3

            (b)        1             4             2             3

            (c)        3             2             4             1

            (d)        3             4             2             1

            ANSWER (C)


        Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

                        List I List II

                        (Famous Person)                                 (Well-Known as)

            A.         Amrita Sher-Gil                                   1.   Dancer

            B.         Bhimsen Joshi                                     2.   Painter

            C.         Rukmini Devi Arundale                        3.   Poet

            D.         Suryakant Tripathi Nirala                     4.   Singer


                        A             B             C             D

            (a)        2             1             4             3

            (b)        2             4             1             3

            (c)        3             1             4             2

            (d)        3             4             1             2

            ANSWER (B)

       With reference to the scheme launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1.         Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

2.         Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)           1 only

(b)           2 only

(c)           Both 1 and 2

(d)           Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (B)

        Consider the following pairs:

                        Persons                             Sports

            1.         Anand Pawar              :        Chess

            2.         Akhil Kumar                :        Boxing

            3.         Shiv Shanker              :        Gold

                        Prasad Chowrasia

(a)           1 and 2 only

(b)           2 and 3 only

(c)           3 only

(d)           1, 2 and 3

            ANSWER (B)


        Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

                        List I                                                    List II

                        (Book)                                                 (Author))

            A.         In custody                                          1.   Amartya Sen

            B.         Sea of Poppies                                    2.   Amitav Ghosh

            C.         The Argumentative Indian                    3.   Anita Desai

            D.         Unaccustomed Earth                            4.   Jhumpa Lahiri


                        A             B             C             D

            (a)        4             1             2             3

            (b)        4             2             1             3

            (c)        3             2             1             4

            (d)        3             1             2             4

            ANSWER (C)


         Among the following, who are the Agaria community?

            (a)        A traditional toddy tappers community

            (b)        A traditional fishing community of Maharashtra

            (c)        A traditional silk-weaving community of Karnataka

            (d)        A traditional salt pan workers community of Gujarat.

            ANSWER (A)

       Recently, which one of the following was included in the UNESCO's World Heritage list?

            (a)        Dilwara Temple

            (b)        Kalka-Shimla Railway

            (c)        Bhiterkanika Mangrove Area

            (d)        Vishkhapatnam to Araku valley railway line

            ANSWER (B)
1.      In a carrom board game competition, m boys and n girls (m > n > 1) of a school participate in which every student has to play exactly one game with every other student. Out of the total games played, it was found that in 221 games one player was a boy and the other-player was a girl.

            Consider the following statements :

            1.         The   total   number   of  students   that participated in the competition is 30.

            2.         The number of games in which both players were girls is 78.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

           ANSWER (C)

2.      There are three cans A, B and C. The capacities of A, B and C are 6 litres, 10 litres and 16 litres respectively. The can C contains 16 litres of milk. The milk has to be divided in them using these three cans only.

            Consider the following statements :

            1.         It is possible to have 6 litres of milk each in can A and can B.

            2.         It is possible to have 8 litres of milk each in can B and can C.

            Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        Both 1 and 2

            (d)        Neither 1 nor 2

            ANSWER (C)

3.      Consider the following pairs:

            1.         Ashok Leyland   :     Hinduja Group

            2.         Hindalco            :    A.V. Birla Group Industries

            3.         Suzlon Energy   :    Punj Lloyd Group

            Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

            (a)        1 and 2 only

            (b)        2 only

            (c)        1 and 3 only

            (d)        1, 2 and 3

            ANSWER (A)

4.      In the context of global economy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

            (a)        JP Morgan          :           Financial Services Chase

            (b)        Roche Holding    :           Financial Services AG

            (c)        WL Ross &          :           Private Equity Co.     Firm

            (d)   Warburg Pincus       :           Private Equity Firm

            ANSWER (B)


5.      Consider the following houses:

            1.         Christie's

            2.         Osian's

            3.         Sotheby's

            Which of the above is/are' auctioneer/ auctioneers ?

            (a)        1 only

            (b)        1 and 3 only

            (c)        2 and 3 only

            (d)        1, 2 and 3

            ANSWER (D)

6. In the context of C02 emission and Global Warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt, better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ?

            (a)        Carbon Footprint

            (b)        Carbon Credit Rating

            (c)        Clean Development Mechanism

            (d)        Emission Reduction Norm

            ANSWER (C)


7.      The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following ?

            (a)        Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro

            (b)        Kyoto Protocol

            (c)        Montreal Protocol

            (d)        G-8 Summit, Hciligendamm

            ANSWER (B)

8.      Who among the following is the founder of World Economic Forum ?

            (a)        Klaus Schwab

            (b)        John Kenneth Galbraith

            (c)        Robert Zoellick

            (d)        Paul Krugman

            ANSWER (A)

9.      The Security Council of UN consists of 5 permanent members, and the remaining 10 members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of

            (a)        1 year

            (b)        2 years

            (c)        3 years

            (d)        5 years

            ANSWER (B)

10.      From which one of the following did Kosovo declare its independence ?

            (a)        Bulgaria

            (b)        Croatia

            (c)        Macedonia

            (d)        Serbia

            ANSWER (D)

National Telecom Policy

The much-awaited National Telecom Policy-2011, will be unveiled in January next year, Telecom Minister Kapil Sibal said on Friday.

The policy was earlier expected to be unveiled by December this year, but delays in receiving recommendations have pushed the date to next year.

"The (draft) policy I have already announced as I had committed. Industry wants some more time to respond, we will give them time. All what will happen is finalisation of the policy will happen in January instead of December," Sibal said here at an event.

He added that TRAI's recommendations on the National Telecom Policy have just come in and the Department of Telecom is looking into the same.
"The TRAI recommendations have just come, we will consider them, call Telecom Commission (meet)... move to Cabinet," Sibal said.

Sibal said the media is confusing between TRAI's recommendations and the Telecom Policy.

"People must understand the difference between policy and TRAI's recommendation. The TRAI recommendations deal with the nitty-gritty of mergers and acquisition and all the other specific issues which never go in to policy," Sibal said.

The draft of the National Telecom Policy, 2011, was announced by Sibal in early October with a major thrust on transparency, an improved investment climate and promotion of consumer interest.

Under the draft plan, the Telecom Ministry is also looking to facilitate nation-wide free roaming, frame an exit policy for operators to surrender licences, give a push to indigenous manufacturing and promote an eco-system for development of a self-dependent telecom industry.
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Madras Univ to confer honorary degree on Chilean President

A proposal for conferring honorary doctorate on President of Chile, Michelle Bachelet Jeria, will come up at the Syndicate meeting of the University of Madras on Saturday. 

Last year, the university had awarded honorary degrees to Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, UPA president Sonia Gandhi and Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Karunanidhi at a special ceremony.

The discussion on appointment of lecturers for various university departments will also take place at the syndicate meet. The issue had raised several eyebrows among the university staff itself.

Sources at the university said that the advertisement was placed in a hurry and the candidates were called for interview last week. Though this was the norm, professors questioned the rationale behind the move.

"What is the need to convene an emergency syndicate in order to approve the candidates at the end of an academic year? Also, since this is a government-run institution, questions may be raised about the validity of appointment after the election dates have been announced," stated a professor with the university.

The university vice-chancellor Prof S Ramachandran clarified that there was nothing remotely dubious about the procedure as the advertisement was placed much before the announcement of the elections.
Now, file your service tax returns online

Filing of returns, seeking refund/rebate of taxes, obtaining various permissions and approvals from the Department of Central Excise and Service Tax can now be made online. This follows the introduction of ACES (Automation of Central Excise and Service Tax), a workflow based application software  at the Commissionerate of Service Tax and at the Large Taxpayer Unit (LTU) in Chennai on Thursday.

Speaking to reporters after launching the project, V Sridhar, Member, Central Board of Excise and Customs, said,  this centralised web enabled software would eventually replace the current practice of  manual work.  Besides obtaining various permissions and approvals from the department, the new software could also be used for dispute resolution by an electronic interface.

Sridhar said ACES was a mission mode project of the Central government under the national e-governance plan. He said the pilot project that was launched in Chennai enabled assessees to obtain registration under Central Excise/Service Tax online, to electronically file statutory returns, claims, and intimations besides track the status of these documents online.

The software also had features to generate business related alerts and messages. The project is one of the important steps taken in the information technology consolidation undertaken by the Central Board of Excise and Customs.

Under the IT consolidation project, it is proposed to connect all the Central Excise, Customs and Service Tax offices across the country through a wide area network (WAN) and provide linkages to other stake holders like custodians, banks, Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), Income Tax for validation and online clearances, Sridhar further added.

He said that ACES was first launched in the Large Taxpayer Unit at Bangalore in December 2008 and received 100 per cent patronage. Chennai has been selected as the next ACES linked station, considering the active co-operation extended by the central excise and service tax assessees here.
Private banks to cut rates

In a closed-door meeting with D Subbarao, the governor of the Reserve Bank of India, private sector banks promised that they will cut interest rates. Subbarao met with eight bankers, including ICICI Bank managing director and CEO KV Kamath and HSBC's India group general manager and CEO Naina Lal Kidwai.

UCO Bank chairman and managing director SK Goel, who was also attended the meeting, said private banks have promised that they will cut lending rates further. "The discussion was about giving relief to borrowers. To see that they are comfortable and not put to any inconvenience. Whatever is possible will be done on rates," he said.

Goel also said that bankers wanted to cut deposit rates, "but we will have to wait for a month," he added.
ICICI Bank last cut its prime lending rate on December 31, 2008 by 50 basis points to 16.75%.

Experts are of the opinion that the Reserve Bank of India will also cut interest rates soon with the growth slowing down to 5.3%.

The Reserve Bank of India is expected to cut interest rates because of the slow growth of 5.3% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in from October to December 2008.

"This (GDP) data should act as a trigger for a rate cut, that seems to be clear in my mind," said prime minister's Economic Advisory Council chairman Suresh D. Tendulkar.

D.K. Joshi, principal economist at the rating agency CRISIL, said "A rate cut can happen anytime soon."
Economists expect RBI to cut the repo rate (the rate at which it lends to banks) by 50 basis points to 5% from the current 5.5%. " In the immediate future, RBI may cut repo rate and cash reserve ratio by 50 basis points," said Robert Prior Wandesforde, chief Indian economist-global markets, HSBC Bank.

Cash Reserve Ratio is the proportion of their deposits that banks need to maintain with the RBI and currently stands at 5%.

Airport and Airline Management

An ISO 9001-2000 Certified Institution


Tel: 0422-2252672/ 2252673

Email: admissions@nehrucolleges.com

Web: www.nehrucolleges.com

Pioneers in Aviation Training

Admission 2009-2010

(Approved by DGCA, Govt.of India, New Delhi)

(Approved by AICTE and Affiliated to Anna University)

Airport and Airline Management

Eligibility: AME: +2/DIPLOMA with 50%

MBA: ANY DEGREE with 40%

BE: +2 with 55% in MPC

Cost of prospectus: AME AND MBA: Rs.500/-
BE: Rs.250/-


ON PLACEMENT 5 digit salary in India and 6 digit salary in other countries

Aircraft and Aviation Labs, Model Airport, Aviation Museum, Photo Gallery, Heavy Aircrafts, Helicopter and 10 small Aircrafts for Practical Training and OJT.

Best Aeronautical Training Institute of India. > Campus Recruitment by all leading Aviation industries from India and Abroad. > Fees in easy instalments and Bank loan facility. > Separate Hostel for Boys and Girls.

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2009--B.E/B.Sc.(Ag.)/B.Sc.(Horti.)

Annamalainagar - 608 002
Tamil Nadu, South India.



Degree Programmes


The Entrance examinations for Admission to B.E/B.Sc(Ag) and B.Sc.(Horti.)Programmes of the Annamalai University for the year 2009-10 are scheduled to be conducted by the University.



AGRICULTURE: B.Sc.Agriculture/B.Sc.Horticulture.

General Instructions: Candidates who are appearing for Higher Secondary OR Equivalent Qualifying examinations during March-May 2009 and candidates who have already passed H.Sc. OR Other equivalent qualifying examinations are eligible to apply for these entrance examinations.

The entrance examination will be conducted in the following scheduled and subjects

Paper 1: Biology(Botany and zoology) - 06.05.2009(Forenoon)
Paper 2: Physical sciences(physics and chemistry) - 06.05.2009(afternoon)
Paper 3: Mathematics - 07.05.2009 (Forenoon)

Cost of application form
01. SC/ST CANDIDATES: Rs.200/-
02. Others : Rs.400/-


Issue of application forms commences from : 23.02.2009
Last date for issue of application forms: 21.03.2009

Last date for receipt of filled in application forms: 31.03.2009

To get application forms by POST the candidate should send a requisition letter along with a DD for Rs.400/- (Except SC/ST Candidates) For SC/ST candidates they have to send a requisition letter along with a DD for Rs.200/- along with a certificate as specified above. The DD should be drawn in favor of THE REGISTRAR, ANNAMALAI UNIVERSITY, ANNAMALAINAGAR-608002 obtained on OR after 21.02.09 from any bank payable at Chennai and a self addressed KRAFT Envelope of size 35cmx15cm with stamps affixed to the value of Rs.15/-.

Candidates are advised to write their name and address on the reverse side of the DD.

Application forms will be sent ONLY BY ORDINARY POST and the University will not be held responsible for non-receipt of application forms.
Sir Chhotu Ram Institute of Engineering and Technology

Approved by AICTE

C.C.S. University Campus, Meerut

Applications on prescribed Application Forms (given at the end) for the following posts are invited from suitably qualified candidates as per AICTE norms (as inidicated against each post) for SIR CHHOTU RAM INSTITUTE OF ENGG. & TECH, a Campus Institute of the University. The Institute is approved by AICTE. Last date of receipt of application is 05 March 2009

    * Agriculture Engg. :-
          o Prof. - 1 (UR),
          o Asstt. Prof. - 02 (SC - 1, UR - 1),
          o Lecturer - 6 (SC-01, UR-3 and OBC - 02)
    * Applied Sc. & Humanities :-
          o Chemistry -
                + Asstt Prof. - 1 (OBC),
                + Lecturers - 02 (SC-1, UR-1)
          o English -
                + Lecturers 03 (SC-01, OBC - 01, UR -01)
          o Environment Science .
                + Lecturer 01 (UR)
          o Maths .
                + Prof. 01 (UR),
                + Lecturers -04 (SC-1, OBC - 1, UR-02)
          o Physics .
                + Asstt Prof. 01 (UR),
                + Lecturers - 02 (SC -01, UR -01)
    * Chemical Engg.
          o Lecturer 01 (UR)
    * Computer Science Engg.
          o Prof. -01 (UR),
          o Asstt Prof. -02 (UR -01, OBC - 01)
          o Lecturers - 07 (SC-02, OBC-02, UR-03)
    * Electronics & Comn. Engg.
          o Prof. -01 (UR),
          o Asstt Prof. -02 (UR -01, SC - 01)
          o Lecturers - 08 (SC-02, OBC-02, UR-04)
    * Electronics & Instru. Engg.
          o Prof. -01 (UR),
          o Asstt Prof. -02 (UR -01, SC - 01)
          o Lecturers - 07 (SC-01, OBC-02, UR-04)
    * Mechanical Engg.
          o Prof. -01 (UR),
          o Asstt Prof. -02 (UR -01, OBC - 01)
          o Lecturers - 09 (SC-02, OBC-03, UR-04)
    * Last Date: 05.03.09

For full details please visit the official website of Sir Chhotu Ram Institute of Engineering and Technology.


Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology

MBA Admission-2009

Date Extented for Submission of Application Form till 9 March 2009:MBA Admission-2009

Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology,
Allahabad -211004, India

Admission to MBA Programme 2009-2011

The institute offers two year full time program with dual specialization in following disciplines:-

Human Resource
Systems Management
Operations Management
International Business


a. Candidates applying for admission must have a Bachelor's degree in Engineering/Technology/Science OR an equivalent degree with Mathematics/Economics as one of the subjects in qualifying examination. Candidates appearing in their final year of Bachelor's degree may also apply.

b. Candidates applying for MBA are required to appear in CAT-2008.

How to Apply

Applicant may fill up down loaded form, take a printout and send the same along with a Demand Draft of Rs. 1000/- paid in the name of Director, MNNIT, Allahabad.

The short-listed candidates shall be called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview at MNNIT, Allahabad. List of Candidates called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview will be displayed on the Institute Website on 12th March, 2009.

Print copy of downloaded form and a D.D. of Rs.1000/- (non-refundable) drawn in favour of "Director MNNIT, Allahabad", payable at Allahabad, should reach the office of the Dean (Academic Affairs) on or before March 9, 2009.

Important Dates

Date of CAT 2008 Examination
16 November, 2008

Last Date for Submission of Form:
9 March, 2009

Declaration of list of Short-listed Candidates:
12 March, 2009

GD/PI for short listed candidates:
29 March, 2009

Declaration of List for Admission:
14 April,

Dean (Academic Affairs)
Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology,
Allahabad -211004, India

Phone: 0532-2271109 (Direct),
Fax: 0532- 0532-2545341, 2545677
Email: deanacademic@mnnit.ac.in

For more info - Visit

Several warnings have been received about possible terrorist attacks on venues of national and international events held in Chennai recently, highlighting the need to tighten security in the city.

"We did get two to three emails warning us of bomb-laden cars and other things," says City Commissioner of Police K Radhakrishnan.

"Most often, these mails are just hollow threats. However, foolproof security arrangements are made as such mails can never be dismissed as pranks," he added.

This view is echoed by S R Jangid, the Suburban Commissioner of Police. "Almost all the calls are hoax. If undue importance is not given to these threats in the media, the situation won't get out of hand. The media should not overplay irrelevant and hollow threats," he said.

However, not all such threats can be dismissed and some are very serious. A mail received by Ahmedabad police warned of an attack on airports, including those of Chennai and Bangalore. The mail had warned of an hijack attempt and of a suicide bomber being on the prowl at Chennai airport.

Another email, which was received by the Confederation of Indian Industry and was traced to Saudi Arabia, warned of an attack on the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas conclave.

Yet another threat, this time through snail mail, was received by an airline office from the Karraikal region. Police say that the handwriting and the information in the letter matched another letter received in March.

"Considering what is happening in the country, these threats cannot be dismissed without proper analysis," said G U G Shastri, the ADGP Railways.
India's tech capital is stressed out

It is a city of contradictions. On the one hand, it is one of the fastest growing cities in India, but its dizzying growth hides a grim statistic, it is witnessing a rapid rise in suicide rate and has become the suicide capital of India.

Over 200 people, including teenagers, commit suicide every month in the city as they suffer from work-related stress or insecurity.

According to Bangalore Police records, in the first seven months of this year, 1,444 people in the city have committed suicide. Of these, more than 655 people belong to IT and ITES sectors. According to a recent study by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS), Bangalore, over 40 per cent of the suicides in the city are committed by people who earn more than Rs 30,000 per month.

The statistics reveal a dangerous trend.

Mumbai-based psychiatrist Sheetal Ravi said, "The scenario is quite alarming.

People should find some time for the family and friends when they get distressed.

At the moment, we do not have any other way out. The IT industry itself is very competitive and sometimes it becomes very difficult to cope with the pressure of a rapidly changing industry." Sheetal said that the use of credit cards among the techies has soared over the last five years, and with pay cuts happening on the one hand and interest rates soaring on the other, more youth might be driven to depression and suicides.

A source from the HR department of IBM said that pressure on the employee cannot be avoided as "all the foreign projects have tight deadlines and in order to achieve this the companies exert high pressure." They also said that "every company had special programmes to ease the pressure, which sometimes did not work." Sheetal said that most youth become quickly depressed as their family structure has been de-prioritised. The high expectations from their parents coupled with the lack of an adequate social life also contribute to the rising suicide rates, adds Sheetal.

NOKIA to pay for poor service

The Chennai District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (South) has directed the Quantum Telesys, represented by proprietor of Nokia Customer Care Centre in Royapettah to pay a compensation of Rs 5,000 to a customer for negligence in service.

The forum comprising its president P Rosiah and member Y Malliga, which gave the direction while passing orders on a complaint from K V Sajeev Kumar, also directed the firm to hand over a new mobile phone of the same model to the complainant within six weeks.

The forum was allowing the complaint alleging deficiency of service in the supply and maintenance of a phone, which was faulty.
Cars and Bikes / Zen Estilo Sports launched
Sep 24, 2008, 02:20 AM
Zen Estilo Sports launched

Compare the Zen Estilo Sports to the top-end Zen VXi and you will find some changes. Take a look anyway - after all, the Sports version is only Rs 6000 or so pricier than the VXi.

In August, Maruti Suzuki saw a serious decine in sales - like most other car manufacturers in India. The A2 segment cars from Maruti - Alto, Zen Estilo, Swift and WagonR - registered a decline of 9.75%. So a bit of desperate tactics are only to be expected. Also, with a few of these little facelifts, the company might actually be preparing for the imminent launch of the A-Star in India.

One, body graphics everywhere. On the right, left and back. How good it looks, we cannot make out from the few photos available right now.

You have a new chrome tipped muffler extension. Not a bad addition that. A bit of chrome there at the back can look good. Inside, you get an factory fitted CD-MP3 player with four speakers (one in each door.) The IP tray, IP center garnish and speedo dials etc get a bit better looking grey black and silver color scheme. The AC louvres in the Sports Edition Estilo get a silver ring, and carpets and door trim get a bit of the shiny stuff. Wheel covers in the Estilo Sports are sportier, claim Maruti. You decide for yourself! ame goes for revised rear view mirrors.

Looking at all that, why should anyone go for the Estilo VXi anymore? Those extra fittings are worth Rs 6,000
New Music Card Format from SanDisk

SanDisk announced the launch of a new flash-based micro card for phones, MP3 players and computers, which is slated for official release in the near future. The device is said to be pre-loaded with Digital Rights Management-free music, featuring artists from Sony BMG, Universal Music Group, Warner Music and EMI Music, according to the company.

The slotMusic card will simply have to be inserted into microSD-enabled gadgets such as mobile phones or MP3 players; afterwards, users can enjoy their favourite tunes without having to input any password. As for connecting it to a computer, SanDisk informed that the card was packaged with a USB card reader that renders it compatible to systems running on Windows and Linux.

Moreover, the microSD has a 1 GB storage capacity and also allows users to add music or video content to it, the company further stating that the MP3-based tracks would be played back at a maximum speed of 320 kilobytes per second. SanDisk added that other details concerning the device's price and availability would be made public in time for the upcoming holiday season.

Users will be able to purchase the product at United States brick-and-mortar stores Wal-Mart and Best Buy, the release on European markets being scheduled for a later time.

SanDisk Corporation is a multinational company that specializes in designing and marketing flash memory card products, which was founded in 1988. This year, Milpitas-based SanDisk's market capitalization was reported at $6.5 billion.

Be excited, but be scared. A world of mind-blowing possibilities is suddenly being thrust upon the world of video gaming.

The era of thought controlled games has arrived, and soon you could be required only to 'think' to operate a video game. Maybe you'll even have the chance to be completely immersed in a video game 'world'.

The Emotiv EPOC headset - the first Brain Computer Interface (BCI) device for the gaming market is the technology behind the revolution -- and the company claims to have already mastered thought control.

The EPOC detects and processes real time brain activity patterns (small voltage changes in the brain caused by the firing of neurons) using a device that measures electric activity in the brain.

In total, it picks up over 30 different expressions, emotions and actions.

The leap in technology has been met with excitement amongst many gamers. Singapore enthusiast Samuel Lau has even made a video showing his hopes for the future of gaming.

But, for the creators, what possibilities does this open up for future video games?

According to experts, the sci-fi scenarios depicted in The Matrix, and Star Trek's 'Holodeck' are now comprehendible realities in the future.

President and co-founder of Emotiv Systems, Tan Le, said the brain-to-computer interface was undoubtedly the future for video games.

"Being able to control a computer with your mind is the ultimate quest of human-machine interaction. When integrated into games, virtual worlds and other simulated environments, this technology will have a profound impact on the user's experience." What do you think video games of the future will look like?

Le envisaged the lines between games and reality continuing to blur.

"In the long run, the user's interactions with machines will more closely mimic our interactions with other humans. Our technology will ultimately bring communities of people closer together to richly share their experiences," she said.

Rick Hall, production director at the Florida Interactive Entertainment Academy, is also open-minded about possibilities in future gaming.

Hall, who has worked across machines such as the N64, Sony PSP, PS2, and Nintendo DS, told CNN that some of the concepts in The Matrix were now "eerily reaching towards theoretical possibility".

"If we can interpret basic control thoughts now, it isn't far off where we'll be able to interpret more complex thoughts, even potentially things you're not consciously thinking of. If we can now do it in a non-invasive fashion, it probably won't be long before we can read these things from across the room.

And if we can "read" complex thoughts, then shouldn't we also be able to "write" thoughts into a person's brain?

"So add that up: a wireless, remote, brain reading/writing device that can scan, interpret, and communicate with someone across the room, without them even knowing it. Connect that to the Internet... and talk about brainwashing possibilities. What if some hacker could figure out how to write viruses to people's brains? It's actually a little scary."

But, it's not all optimism and imagination for the technology.

B.Sc Aircraft Maintenance Technology / Aeronautical Technology

An ISO 9001-2000 Certified Institution
Phone: (0422) 2252671 , 2252672, 2252673
Email: admissions@nehrucolleges.com
Website: www.nehrucolleges.com

The perfect take-off to your flying career

Learn from the Pioneers


Aircraft Maintenance Technology
Aeronautical Technology
(Affiliated to Anna University)

Eligibility: +2 with MPC.

Duration: 3 years

Aircraft and Aviation Labs having SCALE MODEL NEXT GENERATION AIRPORT, Aviation Museum, Photo Gallery, 8 Aircrafts & Helicopter for Practical Training

Campus Recruitment by all leading Aviation Industries form India and Abroad.

No Donation, Fees in easy installments and Bank loan facility.

Heavy Aircraft acquired for Advanced Training

For Admission contact with original certificates at Kuniamuthur Office, Coimbatore.
Quscient Freshers Walkin 22nd September - 27th September 2008

About Company

QuScient, with deep experience in process and technology solutions, offers transformational Business Process Outsourcing to its mid-market customers. BPO has moved beyond pure cost arbitrage and the second phase of BPO is a consulting-led outsourcing model with "measurable business gains" as the objective. Our process consulting can help optimize any sub-optimally conceived processes, while putting together creative, scalable technology systems to support the processes. The technology building exercise and your business processes can be outsourced to us to take advantage of low offshore costs and high process quality. In our relentless quest to add 'business value' to our customers, we aim to be a trustworthy and dependable partner.

City/ Location: Chennai

Educational Qualification: Any Graduate/Diploma holder / 10+2, Good Communication Skills, Willing to work in Night Shifts

Experience Level: O - Up Years

How to Apply: Walk-in 22nd-27th September 2008, 10 AM - 6 PM

Venue: Quscient Technologies Pvt Ltd.

Module No. 1207,
Tidel Park, 12th Floor,
North Block - D, No.4,
Rajiv Gandhi Salai,
Taramani, Chennai - 113.

Phone: 4211 8120 / 98405 63332

Email: resume@quscient.com

Job Description      Mobius Knowledge Services recruits - Web Researchers with the following skills.

Graduates with good analytical skills.

Good in basic computer skills.

Willing to work in flexible work timings.

Please e-mail your resume with the position in the subject line

clearly mentioned to careers@mobiusservices.com

Job Function    Web Researchers

Education    Graduates with good analytical skills

Company Details

Company Name    Mobius Knowledge Services

Company Profile    At Mobius, we firmly believe that the strength of the company lies in the individual. Mobius is a thought leader in the knowledge services space and provides immense scope for growth and outstanding opportunities for learning and self-development. All these make Mobius the organization that is ideal for building singularly successful careers.

Candidate Details

Experience    Freshers

Location    Chennai

Contact Information

Address:    "Karumuttu Center"
634 Anna Salai
Chennai - 600 035
Tamil Nadu, India

Phone: +91-44-2433 3336/4446

Fax: +91-44-2431 5528

Apply Details    For Further Details click on redirect to employers Website.

Apply Email    careers@mobiusservices.com
Google Desktop 5.8 for Windows: increased performance

We love getting your feedback, and one of the themes that has cropped up in the Google Desktop Help group is that you want a lighter, faster product. We heard the message loud and clear and decided that the Google Desktop 5.8 for Windows release would be based entirely on performance.

In true Google fashion, we took a data-driven approach: Measure, then analyze, fix the most important issues and lowest hanging fruit, then rinse, lather and repeat.

First, we built performance tests that simulate a typical user's behavior when using Google Desktop and measure the time spent on actions such as starting up, shutting down, searching, adding a gadget, adding a new document to the search index, and so forth. We then took a page from the Google Chrome playbook by running the performance tests automatically for every single change we made to the software, on dozens of machines each time so that an average of the time measurements from all of them would give us a reliable comparison against previous versions.

Next, we refined an option that helps us improve the product, with your agreement. To send us information about problems you might experience, you can opt in to our error reporting system. If you have opted in, the system will send us anonymous diagnostic information about such events as crashes. In the new version, we improved this system to also detect and report situations where our product could be making your computer slow to respond.

We've learned a lot from these two new sources of data. The performance measurement system enabled us to discover some seemingly small changes that had a major impact on performance. We've been able to immediately fix changes that decreased performance, and learn from changes that improved performance. For example:

    * We found a way to cut memory usage during startup by about 50%.
    * Shutdown now happens five times faster, and we were able to avoid a seemingly innocuous state that would have almost doubled startup time.

From automated error reports sent by our beta testers, we learned that while Google Desktop generally performs very well, certain types of usage and some interactions with 3rd party software can trigger problems. We've made dozens of improvements based on this data. Here are some examples of what we've been able to fix:

    * A few obscure cases where interaction with third party software could slow the computer down when certain types of files were being added to the search index.
    * A rare issue that could cause slower computers to become temporarily unresponsive during Google Desktop startup.

We still weren't satisfied, so we analyzed the design of our software to find ways to improve it. This led us to make a few more changes:

    * We realized that with the hundreds of Google Desktop Gadgets available from third parties, there is always the possibility that one of them performs badly. To help you deal with this, we added a system that detects when a gadget is causing your computer to perform poorly, and asks you whether to remove the gadget. While we were at it, we added proactive security measures that prevent malicious gadgets from stealing information from other gadgets, and we made changes that allow Flash programs such as interactive games to be embedded in gadgets; for certain types of gadgets this can be a lighter weight approach than previously possible.
    * To reduce memory usage, increase stability and reduce memory fragmentation, we reduced the number of different processes that Google Desktop runs, and we now recycle some of our processes frequently (just like Google Chrome).
    * Microsoft Outlook users will be glad to hear that we've reduced memory usage while at the same time improving the coverage and increasing the stability of our Outlook support.

Gift / Prizes Request / Topup Request
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Here by i declare that , before sending this request. I have verified my todays post. So Please check the topup status and confirm it.
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2007 Gauhati University B.A Philosophy Paper II - Western Classical Philosophers Question paper



(Western Classical Philosophers)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours
The questions are of equal value
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

Answer any two questions
1. How does Plato examine the view that knowledge is perception in his dialogue  Theaetetus? Discuss.

2. How does Descartes establish the criterion of truth? How does he apply the criterion in relation to the existence of the external world? Discuss.

3. "The scepticism of Hume is the logical outcome of the empiricism of Locke." Elucidate.

4. Show how Hume's analysis of experience leaves no ground for belief in any permanent reality, whether physical or psychical.

Answer any two questions

5. How does the critical philosophy of Kant reconcile the rival claims of empiricism and rationalism?

6. "Space and Time are empirically real but transcendentally ideal." Comment on  Kant's view.

7. Give a critical account of Kant's Transcendental Deduction of Categories.

8. Write an essay on Kant's Doctrine of Method.


(Contemporary Western Philosophy)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours
The questions are of equal value
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

Answer any two questions
1. What is an 'appearance'? How is an appearance related to reality? Critically discuss following Bradley.

2. What is Phenomenology? Discuss the merit of Husserl's process of phenomenological reduction (bracketing).

3. Explain, adding your comments, the Sartrian expression 'existence precedes essence'.

4. Explain and examine Heidegger's concept 'beings-in-the-world'. Is. 'anguish' natural for men? Discuss.

Answer any two questions

5. What, according to Russell, are the distinctive characteristics of modem logic? Can logic be taken as the essence of philosophy? Discuss.

6. How does Moore refute the principle esse est percipi? Show, giving examples, the relation between consciousness and the object of consciousness.

7. Write an evaluative essay on Wittgenstein's concept of philosophy as 'critique of language'.

8. Is it possible to 'do things' with words? Discuss the problem with reference to Austin.

B.A Political Science Paper I: International Politics Question paper

(International Politics)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions
Write the answers to the two Halves in' separate books
1. Answer any two of the following:
a) What is the difference between International Relations and International Politics?
Comment on the changing - nature of International Relations. 6+6
b) Explain the concept' 'power'. What are the tangible elements of power? Discuss.
c) What is Foreign Policy? importance of national Foreign Policy Making. 6+6
d) Explain briefly Kaplan's six models of system theory. Discuss the interest in 12
2. Write short notes on any two of the following: 52=10
a) Nationalism
b) Problem of Peace
c) Arms Control
d) Diplomacy
3. Write the correct answer / Answer the following: l6=6
(a) The author of the book titled Politics among Nations is
(i) Hans Morgenthau
(ii) Morton Kaplan
(iii) Claude Iris
(iv) T. Bandyopadhaya
(b) The first chair in International Relations was established in the year
(i) 1919
(ii) 1930
(iii) 1945
(iv) 1980
(c) Which one is NOT the correct statement?
(i) Collective security is another device of management of power.
(ii) After the Second World War,. the interdependence of sovereign States has
(iii) Capitalism generally developed out of feudalism; and was responsible for
colonisation and imperialism.
(iv) 'Economic liberalization has not weakened the hold of the State over
(d) What is the full form of NATO?
(e) Single European currency started in the year __________ (Fill up the blank)
(f) The term 'Cold War' was coined by
(i) Walter Lippmann
(ii) Raymond Aron
(iii) E. H. Carr
(iv) Quincy Wright
4. Answer any two of the following:
a) Discuss the role of Security Council in maintaining international peace and
security. Has it been a success or a failure? 6+6
b) What do you understand by the New International Economic Order? Discuss the
structural division between the Global North and the South. 6+6
c) Discuss India's stand on the question of Nuclear Weapons. 12
d) What were the reasons for the end of Cold War? Discuss. 12
5. Write short notes on any two of the following: 52=10
a) Indian Ocean as a Zone of Peace
b) India's Foreign Policy
c) Arm Race
d) NAM
6. Write the correct answer: 16=6
a) Which is the most important and exclusive power of the five permanent members
of UN?
b) What is the full form of SLBM?
c) The major allied powers were the USA, USSR, Britain, France
and_________(Fill up the blank)
d) The first NAM Summit was held in the year _______ (Fill up the blank)
e) Who authored the International Relations World Wars?
f) Match list 1 and list 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
(i) A B C D
1 2 3 4
(ii) A B C D
4 3 1 2
(iii) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(iv) A B C D
2 1 4 3
List 1 (Event)
List 2 (Year)
A Paris Peace Conference 1. 1945
B Partial Test Ban Treaty 2. 1917
C Potsdam Conference 3. 1963
D Russian Revolution 4. 1919
2007 Gauhati University B.A Political Science Paper II: Political theory Question paper



(Political Theory)
Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

1. Answer any' two of the following:
a) Why does Plato insist that philosophers must be kings? Do you consider the idea
practicable? Explain. 6+6
b) Examine Aristotle's concept of democracy. Was Aristotle a democrat? Give
reasons for your answer. 6+6
c) Why is Machiavelli called the modem political scientist? Discuss his views on
State and Government. 6+6
d) Examine the contribution of J. S. Mill to political thought. 12
2. Write short notes on any two of the following: 52=10
a) Mill and women representation
b) Hegel's views on State
c) Locke as an individualist
d) Po1itical ideas of Kautilya
3. Write True or False/Fill in the blanks / Answer the following questions: 16=6
a) Who developed the concept of 'greatest happiness of the greatest numbers'?
b) Who authored the book titled Concerning Justice?
c) According to ______, state of nature is an era of peace, goodwill and mutual
d) Rousseau was an advocate of popular sovereignty.
e) Statesman was written by _________.
f) "Man is not social, but antisocial" stated by__________.

4. Answer any two of the following: 122=24
a) Elaborate Marx's concept of class struggle and surplus value. 6+6
b) Analyse the socialist ideas of Robert Owen. 12
c) "Guild Socialism is the combination of the good elements of Fabianism and
Syndicalism." Explain. 12
d) Explain how Leninism is the further development of Marxism. 12
5. Write short notes on any two of the following: 52= 10
a) Gandhi and Non-violence
b) Anarchism
c) Democratic Socialism
d) Dictatorship of the Proletariat
6. Fill in the blank/ Answer the following questions: 16=6
a) Name any advocate of Guild Socialism.
b) Name any book written by Lenin.
c) "Property is theft" stated by _______________.
d) Identify the author of the book Hind Swaraj
e) Name any advocate of Utopian Socialism.
f) Who is the author of the book The State and Revolution?
2007 Gauhati University B.A Political Science Paper III: Indian Political System and Social Change Question paper



(Indian Political System and Social Change)

Full Marks: 80
Time: 3 hours
The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions
Write the answers to the two Halves in separate books

1. Answer any two of the following:
a) Comment on the salient features of Indian political system with special reference
to its ideological aspects. 12
b) Discuss the role of Fundamental Rights in ensuring and promoting individual
liberty. What types of legal remedies are guaranteed by the Constitution in cases
of violation of Fundamental Rights? 6+6
c) Discuss the ways in which the legislature can exercise control over the working
of bureaucracy in India. 12
d) Explain the significance of Panchayati Raj institutions in bringing about
democratic decentralization in the context of 73rd Amendment of Indian
Constitution. 12
2. Write short notes on (any two) 52=10
a) Regional Political Parties
b) Role of Planning Commission
c) Role of Opposition in Parliament
d) Supreme Court of India
3. Choose the correct answer: l6=6
a) Which article of Indian Constitution contains special provisions for the State of
Jammu and Kashmir?
(i) Article 14
(ii) Article 112
(iii) Article 370
(iv) Article 395
b) Which district of Assam was transferred to Pakistan in 1947 as a result of
partition of India?
(i) Mymensingh
(ii) Rangpur
(iii) Chittagong
(iv) Sylhet
c) Who was the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(i) Jawaharlal Nehru .
(ii) Dr. S Radhakrishnan
(iii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(iv) C Rajagopalachari
d) Who is the author of the book entitled The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a
(i) Rajni Palme Dutt
(ii) Granville Austin
(iii) Durga Das Basu
(iv) Maulana A K Azad
e) Who appoints the Judges of High Courts in India?
(i) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(ii) Governor of the State
(iii) President of India
(iv) Vice-President of India
f) Which. of the following States in India has Legislative Council (Bidhan
Parishad) in addition to Legislative Assembly (Bidhan Sabha)?
(i) Assam
(ii) Meghalaya
(iii) Bihar
(iv) Arunachal. Pradesh

4. Answer any two of the following:
a) Evaluate the role of social movements in effecting social change. Illustrate with
examples in the context of India. 8+4
b) Examine the changes in Indian family system resulting from the process of
modernization. 12
c) What is urbanization? Examine the problems of urban life in India. 4+8
d) Examine the process of social change among tribals in India with special
reference to North-Eastern region. 12
5. Write short notes on (any two): 52=10
a) Role of Elites in Indian society
b) Conditions of Harijans
c) Role of Education in social change
d) Economic inequalities in Indian society
6. Choose the correct answer: 16=6
(a) Which article of the Constitution prohibits practice of 'untouchability' in India?
(i) Article 30
(ii) Article 1 7
(iii) Article 356 (iv) Article 40
(b) Which of the following tribes is characterized by 'matrilineal' system?
(i) Khasis
(ii) Nagas
(iii) Mizos
(iv) Santhal
(c) In which year did the Central Government appoint Minorities Commission in
(i) 1951
(ii) 1961
(iii) 1978
(iv) 1989
(d) Who was the founder of Arya Samaj?
(i) Swami Vivekananda
(ii) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(iii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iv) Raja R~ Mohan Roy
(e) Who gave the call for 'total revolution' in India?
(i) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
(ii) Gopinath Bordoloi
(iii) Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
(iv) Jai Prakash Narain
(f) Who wrote the book Hind Swaraj?
(i) B R Anibedkar
(ii) Subhas Chandra Bose
(iii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru


Time : Three hours   Maximum : 100 marks
SECTION A -- (5 x 8 = 40 marks)
Answer any FIVE of the following.

1.What is Finance Company? What are its strengths?

2.What is Financial Innovation? Trace out its need.

3.What are non-fund based financial services of a commercial bank? Give any three examples.

4.What is hire purchase? What are the obligations of hire vendor under the Hire purchase agreement?

5.What is an Asset Management Company? How it operates?

6.What is Factoring? Explain its features.

7.What is consumer finance? What are the areas in which consumer finance is given by the bankers?

8.Who is an underwriter? What is his obligation under an underwriting agreement?

SECTION B -- (4 x 15 = 60 marks)
Answer any FOUR questions.

9.Discuss the nature of Financial Service Industry and the market environment under Indian context.

10.What is a Lease? What are the merits and limitations of Leasing?

11.What is an Open ended Mutual fund scheme? Discuss the salient features of any one open ended scheme of U.T.I. Mutual Fund.

12.What is Venture Capital? Briefly discuss the venture capital scenario in India.

13.What is Credit rating? What are the Instruments for which credit rating is required? How it is useful to the Investor.

14.What is a Credit card? What are its merits and limitations from the point of view of the Issuer, Member establishment and the Card holder?

15.Discuss the role of Merchant banker in Public issue Management.




Time : Three hours   Maximum : 100 marks
SECTION A -- (5 8 = 40 marks)
Answer any FIVE of the following.

1.State the functions of personal selling.

2.What is meant by territory management?

3.Explain the factors that influence Sales Forecast.

4.Define the term sales management Audit.

5.''One of the major assets of a firm is its channel of distribution - Elucidate.

6.State the criteria in choosing the depot location.

7.Explain the various Inventory control techniques.

8.Briefly explain the economic significance of Transport.

SECTION B -- (4 15 = 60 marks)
Answer any FOUR questions.

9.What are the qualities required for a Good salesman? Explain the types of salesmen.

10.What do you mean by sales organisation? Explain the part played by a sales organisation.

11.Discuss the various methods of training salesmen. Bring out the merits and demerits of each method.

12.Discuss various approaches to the selection of channels of distribution which may be taken by manufacturing concern.

13.Bring out the significance of storing and warehousing in marketing and state the advantages of public warehouse.

14.What are the different modes of Transport? What considerations weigh in the selection of a particular mode of Transport?

15.Discuss in detail the functions performed by packaging.

2007 Anna University B.Tech Information Technology - IF 254 -- DATA BASYSTEMS Question paper

PART A -- (10 ? 2 = 20 marks)
1.   List different data models.
2.   What is the difference between logical data independence and physical data independence?
3.   Define the following terms :
(a)   Granting a privilege
(b)   Revoking a privilege.
4.   Define Boyce-Codd normal norm. How does it differ from 3NF?
5.   What are the additional functions of distributed databases?
6.   Why is concurrency control needed? Give an example.
7.   What is transaction time relation?
8.   What are the insertion options available in CODASYL (network model)?
9.   Define the terms OLAP (Online Analytical Processing) and OLTP (Online Transaction Processing).
10.   What are the types available for access to databases on the World Wide Web?

PART B -- (5 ? 16 = 80 marks)

11.   (i)   Consider the following relational database :

employee (employee_name, street, city)
works (employee_name, company_name, salary)
company (company_name, city)
manages (employee_name, manager_name)
Each of the following queries given an expression in a relational algebra :
(1)    Find the names of all employees who work for First Bank
(2)    Find the names, address and cities of resistance of all employees.
(3)    Find the names of all employees in the data base who do not work
for First Bank Corporation.
(4)    Give all managers a 10 per cent salary raise.
(5)    Delete all tuples in the works relation for employees of Small Bank Corporation.    (10)

(ii)   What are factors that influence physical database design in relational databases?    (6)

12.   (a)   (i)   Define primary key, super key and candidate key.   (5)

(ii)    Write any five naming conversions used for ER schema diagram.   (5)
(iii)    Discuss the various type of join operation in relational database.   (6)   


(b)   (i)    Discuss about the operations performed on files.   (8 )

(ii)    What is a functional dependency? Explain minimal set of functional dependencies?    (8 )

13.   (a)   (i)   What are the cost components to be taken for query execution?   (5)
(ii)    How is select operation done in query processing?   (7)
(iii)    What is heuristic in query optimization?   (4)


(b)   (i)    Discuss the internal and external hashing.   (5)
(ii)    Write algorithm procedures for the following :   (8 )

(1)   Collision resolution in internal hashing.
(2)   Search in lindear hashing.
(iii)    What are the types available in ordered indices and explain?   (3)

14.   (a)   (i)   Explain briefly about parallel join and parallel sort.   (8 )

(ii)    Discuss about data manipulation and data definition in hierarchical model. (8 )


(b)   (i)    The following is the company database :
Employee : Name, Emp_No., Salary, Dept_No, Supervisor Emp_No.
Department : Dept_name, Dept_No, total_salary, manager
Write an active rules to find the total salary.   (8 )

(ii)    Explain the multimedia data types and its application.   (8 )

15.   (a)   (i)   What is the difference between persistence and transient objects?
How is persistence handled in typical object oriented database systems? (6)
(ii)    Discuss the concept of polymorphism.   (6)
(iii)    Compare object oriented and object relational databases.   (4)


(b)   (i)    Describe the association rule among hierarchies with a suitable example.    (5)

(ii)    What are the classification rules? How is regression related to  classification?    (6)
(iii)    What are the main features of commercial available data mining tools?    (5)



(Common to all branches of B.E./B.Tech. - 4yrs and 3yrs courses including Ex B.Sc.)

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks

SECTION 1-(20 x 2 =40 marks)

Answer ALL the questions.

1.   Make antonyms of the following words by adding suitable prefixes :

(a) rational (b) intelligible (c) toxic (d) pious

2.   Match the words in column A with their meanings in column B :

Column A    Column B
(a) Feasibility    exhaust
(b) Option    productive   
(c) Deplete    choice
(d) Constructive    possibility

3. Frame sentences using the given phrases:
(a) Switch over    (b) gone down

4.   Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:
Students ___________ engineering are provided ____________ opportunities ________ get practically trained _________ industries / workshops while doing their courses.

5.   Define the following terms:
a.   Capacitor b. Radar

6.   Fill in the blanks by using correct form of the word that agrees with the subject:
a.   Every one of the labourers ____________ (is / are) given a reward.
b.   Neither of the combatants ____________ (was / were) able to beak the record.

7.   Fill in the blanks with appropriate form of the verbs:
Once upon a time, a little orphan boy ___________ (live) with h is relatives who _______ (treat) him harshly. ________ (fright) That he _________ (punish) severely he ____ (escape).

8.   (a) Transfer the following simple sentence into a compound sentce:
The teacher appreciated the student for her brilliance.
(b) Change the following compound sentence into a complex sentence:
The students have a test and so they are studying.

9.   Fill in the blanks with suitable articles:
Just imagine ______ biology teacher explaining __________ respiratory system or just _______ body part like _________ larynx, to the class.

10.   Give the American English equivalents of the following British English words:
a.   Lift
b.   Aerial

11.   Give the American spelling for the following words:
a.   Analyse
b.   Caliber

12.   Change the following into impersonal passive statements:
a.   They treat water chemically
b.   You cannot change the past.

13.   complete the following sentences suitably
a.   if atmospheric pollution becomes worse, ____________.
b.   If you had approached him ___________________.

14.   Fill in the blanks with comparative forms of the Adjectives given in brackets:
a.   The weather this year is ____________ (bad) than last year.
b.   This movie is __________ (dreadful) than the previous one.

15.   Rewrite as directed:
a.   Listening sill is as important as speaking (into comparative degree)
b.   No other acid is powerful as aqua regia (into superlative degree)

16.   Expand the following compound nouns:
a.   Concrete structure
b.   Friction losses

17.   analyse the sentence pattern in the following sentences:
a.   I met him in Madras last week
b.   They made him the chief secretary.

18.   frame sentences for the following patterns:
a.   S+V+C
b.   S+V+IO+DO

19.   edit the following passage:
The English language came to England with the Germanic tribes who overran England in the fifth century old English borrowed many words from Scandinavian language.

20.   Describe the process of preparing lime tea.

SECTION II - [5 X 12 = 60 MARKS]

21.   Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ozone, a molecule made up of three atoms of oxygen, comprises a layer of the atmosphere that absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun. chlorine atoms, mainly from man made chloroflurocarbons or CFCs, break apart ozone molecules.

Chlorine compounds used in human activities such as electronics, manufacturing and refrigeration are a primary cause of the ozone hole. A large area of intense ozone depletion occurs annually over Antartica during late August through yearly October. The hole typically breaks up as ozone levels increase in late November.

The atmospheric ozone layer over Antarctica declined to record low levels this year due to the combination of an usually cold winter and the continued presence of man made chlorine chemicals reported by US scientists. The surface area covered by the so called, 'ozone hole' in 1993 over 23 million square kilo metres or about twice the size of the Antarctica land mass, was nearly as large as the record 1992 ozone hole.

INSTRUMENT, a Russian satellite orbiting the earth, measured the concentration of ozone over a region
Near the south pole at less than 100 dobson units. This measurements made at the center of the ozone hole was confirmed by balloon and ground based instruments

A Dobson unit is a measure for the physical thickness of the ozone layer. The balloon born measurements also indicated that the Antarctica ozone layer was totally destroyed between the altitudes of 13.5 and 19 kilo metres, creating an ozone void of 5.5 kilo metre thickness.

Deep ozone holes will continue to form annually into the next century. Herman an American scientist, said, 'this situation will persist until the stratospheric chlorine levels decrease'.

The ozone layer is expected to heal itself and become thicker as a result of CFC cutbacks, mandated by an international treaty called the Montreal Protocol.

(a) State whether the following statements are True or False :

(i) Ozone is helpful in the process of absorbing certain radiation creating bad effect.

(ii) Ozone depletion never takes place in the universe.

(iii) The 1993 Ozone hole is considered to be the largest as per the world record.

(iv) Dobson units are used for measuring the effects of danger of ozone.

(b) Read the passage carefully and then choose the responses which best reflect the meaning of the text :

(i) Ozone layer is found

(1) Near the north pole

(2) Near the south pole

(3) As a sheet of the atmosphere

(4) At both south pole and north pole .

(ii) The Ozone molecules break apart due to

(1) The ultra violet radiation

(2) The heat of the sun

(3) The planetary movements

(4)   The levels are intermediary

(c) Choose the meaning which best fits the following words as they are used in the text :

(i)   Radiation

(1) Gathering (2) spreading out

(3) Accumulating   (4) penetrating

(ii)   Depletion

(1)    Production    (2) removal

(3) Moisturisation   (4) reduction

(iii) Decline

(1) becoming weaker   (2) becoming thicker

(3)    becoming stronger   (4)   becoming rough

(iv) Altitude

(1)    length    (2)   breadth

(3) height    (4)   circumference

22. Write a letter to the Editor of a newspaper expressing your concern about the increase in the number of road accidents.

23. Rearrange the following jumbled sentences in the correct order :

(a) A quick reading will give a basic idea of the passage.

(b) If he correct answer is not immediately apparent, check if the option fit in with the meaning
and the structure of both the sentence and the passage

(c) Finally use discretion and judgement to choose the correct option from the remaining choices.

(d) Answering cloze tests requires analytical skills.

(e) The second reading should be accompanied with a reading of the options given after the

(f) And then eliminate choices that do not clearly fit in the sentence.

24. Write a paragraph of 200 words describing the uses of internet.

25. Transcode the following flow chart into a passage of 150 words :

Cellulose shredded wood


Solution of Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda)

Setting bath of dil. Sulphuyic acid


Treads are drawn

Wound on reel


Dried on roller

Wound on bobbin

26. Read the following passage and make notes on it :

Most robots of today consist of little more than a mechanical arm and a computer memory . The
Memory allows the arm to repeat a simple motion like moving a part from one work-bench to
Another, Because its memory can store a collection of such motions, the robot can switch quickly
from one simple task to another. It will not complain of boredom, bulk at job demarcation lines,
take as tea-break or go sick.

This faithful servant is also a stupid one. It has no problem-solving "intelligence". Also it our senses
That would alert it.

If say , the part that it was meant to pick up was upside down - or not there at all. A robot is less
Capable than a man groping in the dark. At least a man can tell by touch if he merely bumps into

Although robots are gradually gaining more senses and more "brains", to-days growth in robotics
has come about largely because industry has learnt how to accommodate these mindless ,
mechanical workers. The automobile industry, which employs some 60 percent of the worlds 20,000
robots , has been leading the way to applications.

That should be no surprise. Assembly-line production is repeated with the sort of simple, repetitive jobs that robots can do so well. Robots are being put to work loading and unloading conveyors, welding car bodies together and spray-painting the finished product. Parts of a car have long been carried to human workers on conveyor belts. It takes only a bit of careful engineering to ensure that the parts sent along to robots are presented in precisely the same position each time. Given that accommodation to their senseless, robots can boost productivity with their untiring speed, and boost quality with their mindless ability to do the same job in exactly the same way every time.

Even smaller manufacturers are finding places for robots in their factories. Some are simply using robots to perform tasks like loading and unloading moulds and presses, which are similar to the jobs, jobs robots do in assembly-line plants.

27. Write a letter to the Manager, ASEAN solutions, Ahmedabad, seeking permission to undergo in-plant training for a week. Assume suitable names and addresses. State your reasons for choosing their company.

28. Describe in two paragraphs the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear power as an alternative source of energy (200) words.
B.E Degree Examination, April / May 2008

(Sixth semester)


Time : 3hours Maximum : 100 Marks

Answer ALL questions.
PART A -- (10 ? 2 = 20 marks)
1. What is the purpose of controlling torque in indicating instruments?
2. The inductance of moving Iron instrument is given by , where Q is the deflection in radians from zero position. The spring constant is 12 ? 10-6 N-m/radian. Estimate the deflection for a current of 5A.
3. What are the likely errors in an Energy meter?
4. What is the special feature of wattmeter that is suitable for low power factor circuits?
5. How potentiometers are standardised?
6. Define the following terms related to Instrument transformers (a) Nominal ratio (b) Turns ratio.
7. When is contact and head resistances are important?
8. Why the voltmeter-Ammeter method is unsuitable for the measurement of low-resistance?
9. What type of Bridge is used for the measurement of frequency?
10. What are the different sources of errors in a.c. measurements?

PART B -- (5 ? 16 = 80 marks)

11. (i) Derive an expression of torque equation for a moving Iron Instrument and comment on the nature of the scale. (10)

(ii) Meter A has a range of (0-10V) and a multiplier resistance of 18 k?. Meter B has a range of (0-300V) and a multiplier resistance of 298 k?. Both meter movements have a resistance of 2 k?. Which meter has a better accuracy? Why? (6)

12. (a) (i) Explain the errors encountered in electrodynamometer type instruments. (8 )

(ii) A meter having a full scale deflection of 1 mA and Rm of 300 ? is to be used to measure sinusoidal ac voltage of 0-10V range. Compute the multiplier resistance that is required. Assume the diode has a forward resistance of 0 ? and a reverse resistance of infinite ohms. (8 )


(b) (i) Explain the construction and working principle of an Energy meter for ac circuits. (8 )

(ii) An energy meter records one unit for every 660 revolutions of the disc. A load of 1000 watt hour is measured using this meter for 12 hours. The disc was found rotating at 10.2 revolutions per minute. Calculate the error involved in terms of units of energy. (8 )

13. (a) (i) Describe Gall potentiometer with a neat diagram and bring out its salient features. (8 )

(ii) Explain how to calibrate wattmeters using potentiometers. (8 )


(b) (i) How do current transformers differ from potential transformers. (4)
(ii) A current transformer with a bar primary has 300 turns in its secondary winding. The resistance and reactance of the secondary circuit are 1.5 ? and 1.0 ? respectively. With 5 A flowing in the secondary winding, the magnetising mmf is 100 amperes and Iron loss is 1.2 Watts. Determine the ratio and phase angle error. (12)

14. (a) (i) Which bridge is used for measuring low resistances? Derive an expression for finding out the unknown low resistance under balanced condition. (8)
(ii) With neat sketch, explain the operation of a megger. (8 )


(b) (i) Explain the principle of loss of charge method for measurement of high resistance and derive an expression to find out the unknown resistance using this method. (8 )

(ii) A 2.5 capacitor is charged to a potential of 450 volts. The capacitor is disconnected from the supply and the potential across the capacitor is observed using an electrostatic voltmeter. After 15.2 minutes the voltage has fallen to 280 V. This test is repeated using a resistance 'R' in parallel with the capacitor. But now it took 10.8 minutes for the potential to fall from 450 V to 280 V. Determine the value of 'R'. (8 )

15. (a) (i) Explain with circuit diagram the bridge circuit that can be used to measure high voltages. (8 )

(ii) Derive the equation of balance of a schering bridge. Draw the phasor diagram under null condition and explain how loss angle of capacitor can be calculated. (8 )


(b) In an ac bridge the arrangement is as follows :
AB is an inductive coil of Inductance 'L' and effective resistance 'R'. BC is a non-reactive resistor of 100 ? CD and DA are non-reactive resistors of 200 ? each. CE is a loss-free capacitor 1 . DE is a non-reactive resistance of 500 ?.

Under balance condition, a supply of 10 V at 50 Hz conneced across AC and a vibration galvanometer between B and E. Calculate the value of 'R' and 'L'.
Draw the phasor diagram for the balanced bridge. (16)

Electron Devices

Time: 3Hrs
Maximum:100 marks

PART A (10 X 2 =20)

1. Define electrostatic deflection.

2.List the applications of CRO

3.Define depletion layer capacitance in a PN junction.

4.Determine the germanium PN junction diode current for the forward bias voltage of 0.22 V at room temperature 25 degree C ,with reverse saturation current equal to 1 mA.

5. Define leakage current in a transistor in common emitter configuration.

6. Define transistor insaturation.

7.What is the effect of gate to source voltage on drain charecteristics in a FET?

8.Draw the equivalent circuit of a UJT.

9.List the unique features of LED.

10.Draw the VI charecteristics of a photo diode.

PART B ( 5 X16 =80)

11.Derive from first principle the parameters input/output/feedback conductance ,base spreading resistance and transconductance for the high frequency hybrid - pie model of a transistor.

12 (a) Derive the effect of electric and magnetic field on a electron


(b) Draw the block diagram of a CRO and explain how to measure voltage frequency waveform.

13 (a) (i)How does the generation and recombination of electron -hole pair take place?Explain

(ii) Derive the continuity equation.


(b) Derive the diode equation from first principle and show how charecteristics depends on temperature

14 (a) Draw and explain the structure and charecteristics of JFET and derive the expression for pinch off voltage

(b) Draw and explain the SCR and its V-I charecteristics

15 (a) Explain the concept and theory of charge coupled devices


(b) Draw and explain the solar cell,with device details and operation.
2007 Birla Institute of Technology-Mesra MS Software Engineering Question Papers

MS Software Engineering
Second Semester 2007
Mid-semester examination
Duration : 2 Hours No of pages : 1

Computer Organization & Architecture

1.Design a single precision and a double precision floating point number for the given decimal numbers (2 X 4)
(A) 0.0001
(B) 2345. 234

2. Given the following memory values and one-address machine instruction with an accumulator, what values do the following instructions load into the accumulator?
Word 20 contains 40
Word 30 contains 50
Word 40 contains 60
Word 50 contains 70
Assume Accumulator starts always with the value 80
viii) ADD DIRECT 40 (8 X 1)

3. Discuss the various addressing available for general computer giving an example for each. (8)

4. Write an 8086 assembly language program to compute the sum of two arrays and to store the result in third array, assume a word data. (8)

5. Perform P X Q using Booth's algorithm and verify the same using bit-pairing technique where P = 23 and Q = -15. (2 X 4)

Designation Customer support

Job Description

Customer support, Voice process.

Desired Profile

Any graduate / post graduate / diploma holder / undergraduate with 0 - 5 years of experience in a call center.
Should be flexible with shifts
Must be excellent in communication

Experience : [blink]0 - 2 Years[/blink]

Industry Type : BPO/ITES /CRM/Transcription

Functional Area : ITES/BPO/KPO, Customer Service, Ops.

Education : Any Graduate

Location : Bengaluru/Bangalore

Contact Hamsa

Accenture IBC
Knowledge Park
4/1, Bannerghatta Road
Bangalore,Karnataka,India 560029

Telephone 91-080-40773183

Website : https://www.accenture.com
Sr. ERP Executive


Job Function : IT/Telecom - Software

Specialization : ERP/CRM

Industry : Logistics/Freight Forward/Distribution/Courier

Qualification : Post Graduation - Others -Graduate (Others -Relevant Stream)

Experience : [blink]2 - 5 Years[/blink]

Level : Junior - Executive, Assistant

Location : TAMIL NADU (Chennai)


Role requires handling the work related to Sr. ERP Executive.


Address :

18 A First St Kamdar Nagar
Chennai 600034
Job Function : Electronics, Engg. project Mgmt./site Engg./Civil Engg.

Specialization : Electrical/Electronic, Control, Large Equipments, Microcontrollers, Remote Sensing, Signal Processing

Industry : Engineering/Projects

Qualification : School & Graduation - B.A., B.Com, B.Pharm, B.Plan, B.Sc, BBA, BCA, Diploma, B.Ed, BHM

Experience : [blink]0 - 3 years[/blink]

Level : Junior - Executive, Assistant

Location : TAMIL NADU (Chennai) ,KARNATAKA (Bengaluru / Bangalore) ,MAHARASHTRA (Pune) ,Delhi ,METROS (Delhi/NCR)

JOB DESCRIPTION : Applications Engineers (Projects)

Key Background:

Engineering Graduates & Post Graduates only in these branches: ECE, EEE, Mechatronics, Instrumentation, Control & E&I
MSc Candidates in these branches: Instrumentation, Electronics
Freshers & Experienced Candidates can apply

Job Profile

System Engineering knowledge for Measurement, Automation & Automated Test Systems
System Design including architecture, hardware, software, sensors and accessories
Application development using LabVIEW, TestStand, etc
System integration of software, instrumentation hardware, sensors,
accessories for complete system
Great Logical, Troubleshooting & Problem solving skills
Ability to read electrical & mechanical drawings
Great Attitude and direct interaction with customers & vendors
White Box Testing of the entire system

Applications Engineers (System Integration & Support)
Key Requirements:
Diploma Engineers only in these branches: DECE, DEEE, DICE, Diploma in Mechatronics, Diploma in Instrumentation
Freshers & Exerienced Candidates can apply

Job Profile
System Engineering knowledge for Measurement, Automation & Automated Test Systems
System Design including architecture, hardware, software, sensors and accessories
Application development using LabVIEW, TestStand, etc
System integration of software, instrumentation hardware, sensors,
accessories for complete system
Great Logical, Troubleshooting & Problem solving skills
Ability to read electrical & mechanical drawings
Great Attitude and direct interaction with customers & vendors
Black Box Testing of entire system

COMPANY DESCRIPTION : www.apnatech.com

Leaders in Measurement, Automation & Control in the field of Test Measurement


Address : careers@apnatech.com
Sundram Fasteners Looking for Fresh Diploma Trainees

Sundram Fasteners Ltd

Designation Fresh Diploma Trainees

Job Description

To assist Shift In-charge. The applications may be sent to the e-mail ID : ashok@sez.sfl.co.in

Desired Profile

Knowledge in CNC machines will be an added advantage. One or two years experience will be considered.

Experience : [blink]0 - 2 Years [/blink]

Industry Type : Auto/Auto Ancillary

Functional Area : Production, Maintenance, Quality

Education : Diploma - Mechanical

Location : Chennai


Sundram Fasteners Ltd

AA1,Central Avenue
Auto Ancilliary SEZ
Mahindra World City
Chengalpattu,Tamil Nadu,INDIA 603002

Website : http://www.sundram.com
Raksha Technologies

Experience : [blink]1 - 2 Years[/blink]

Location : Chennai

Education : UG - Any Graduate - Any Specialization PG - Post Graduation Not Required

Industry Type : IT-Software/ Software Services

Functional Area : E-Commerce, Internet Technologies

Job Description

Exciting Opportunities beckon Software Developers for .net with experience of 2yrs for our Chennai facility.

Job Responsibilities

Will be responsible for code development, testing.

Should create Lower Level Documentation.

Desired Candidate Profile
Required Skills

1. Should be an expert in ASP .net, VB .net (2+ years).
2. Hands on experience in SQL (Oracle)
3. Should have good leadership skills

Company Profile

Raksha Technologies Private Ltd. started its operations in 2000 with an objective to create mission critical software applications for manufacturing and service industries. Our clientele includes retailers, foundries, offset printing, hospitals, valve manufacturing, freight forwarding and engineering industries in the areas of CRM, ERP, Decision Support Systems, SMS Based Applications,
Web Design and Applications.

Raksha has an extensive corporate customer base in South India. Raksha has a team of engineers, developers and administrative staff spread over their offices in Chennai, Coimbatore & Bangalore

Contact Details

Company Name : Raksha Technologies Pvt.Ltd

Website : http://www.rakshatech.com

Executive Name : Iyappan

Email Address : hr@rakshatech.com

Telephone : 91-44-24422336,24402378
Chat Box / How are fireflies able to glow?
Sep 05, 2008, 11:54 PM
How are fireflies able to glow?

Why Do Fireflies Glow?

Organisms that produce light are referred to bioluminescent beings. Bioluminescence is defined as "the process wherein light is produced by a chemical reaction which originates in the organism" (1). Bioluminescence is mostly a phenomenon found at the bottom of the ocean floor, but fireflies also possess this ability. They emit a soft light and are often called "lightning bugs" because of the way they flash their light on and off. Contrary to what one might think, the glow that the fireflies give off is not used to attract or deter their prey. On the other hand, fireflies use different intermittent signals in order to capture the attention of a possible future mate. Both sexes of fireflies use a specific flash pattern that can range anywhere from a short burst to a long continuous flashing sequence (2). Within any given population, there are many different species of fireflies and each species has a distinct signal. Males and females locate each other by recognizing their specific sequences. Since mating is essential to survival, attracting a mate can sometime become an aggressive game. It is not unusual in this game for a specific female species of firefly to fake their signals in order to confuse and lure a male from another species for the sole purpose of eliminating him. Overall, the firefly's lantern is essentially a courtship device; but how does the firefly actually make light?

How Does Bioluminescence Work?

The light that a firefly creates is the result of a combination of four different ingredients. This light is produced through a chemical reaction involving Luciferin, which is a substrate, Luciferase, an enzyme, ATP, and oxygen (3). The light producing section of the body is located in the sixth or seventh abdominal section of the firefly. It is within this cavity that the two compounds Luciferin and Luciferase are stored. A firefly will draw oxygen in through its complex system of air tubes and expose the oxygen to the Luciferin and the Luciferin will then oxidize and activate the Luciferase. This will generate a light that will shine through the skeleton of the abdomen. It is important to note that scientists disagree about the method that the fireflies use to control the duration of their flashes. One theory, known as the "Oxygen Control Theory", explains that fireflies can control the length and duration of their light by regulating the amount of oxygen that they intake (3). If little or no oxygen reaches the part of the firefly known as the phonic organ, the chemical reaction will not be extremely strong and the light of the firefly will not shine very brightly or for a lengthy duration (3). Another theory, known as the "Neural Activation Theory" states that fireflies have neural control over the activity of structures called "tracheal end cells" (3). These structures aid in the initiation of the chemical reaction. Whether or not the fireflies have physical or neural control over their ability to produce light, their method of creating the light that emanates from their bodies is extremely efficient. Very little heat is given off of this light which means that not very much energy is wasted at all. This "cold light" has a 96% efficiency rating; which, when compared to an incandescent light that has only 10% efficiency, is rather impressive (3).

How Useful is Bioluminescence?

Christopher Contag, a bioluminescence researcher a Stanford University began to think more about this glow-in-the-dark idea and developed a way to utilize the process that occurs in fireflies when doing research about living tissue. This is because fireflies create light due to a chemical reaction that depends on the presence of ATP. If ATP is present in a sample of something, that is a good indication that life is occurring within that specimen (4). NASA has considered using this method to test for life on other planets. If these firefly compounds were mixed with samples and they produced a glowing reaction, that would mean that the presence of ATP would be highly likely. Biologists are also using this approach to fight Tuberculosis. If the enzyme Luciferase is added to a cultured sample of Tuberculosis and an antibiotic is also added, the strength of the antibiotic can be tested. If the drug fails, then the bacteria will continue to thrive and glow. This method enables researches and doctors to cut the time needed for drug treatments to just three days instead of three months (4). This research has also been employed in gene activation therapy cases, where ultraviolet cameras seek out genes treated with Luciferase. If light is visible, this means that the Luciferase gene is active. This will help researchers to know when they have made a successfully attempt a gene therapy. "This is a powerful approach for looking at any number of biological phenomena, because you can study gene regulation in a living animal over time, in superficial or deep tissues," said Contag (4). There is enormous potential for this type of research.

There are many forms of life in this world. There is also an incredible range of diversity among the kinds of living organisms that roam the earth. Although there is still a lot that we do not know about bioluminescence and fireflies, we do know that the findings of the experiments with Luciferin, Luciferase, and ATP can lead scientists to new and exciting discoveries. I never knew that the fireflies that make up my favorite memories from childhood would be helping to save so many lives.
B.Tech I Semester Regular Examinations, November 2006


( Common to Mechanical Engineering, Mechatronics and Production
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) How can the mechanism of higher pair be replaced by the mechanism of lower pair?

(b) Write notes on complete and incomplete constraints in lower and higher pairs, illustrating your answer with neat sketches. [6+10]

2. Two points P and Q, 4 cm apart are to be connected by a pantograph. The motion of P to the motion of P Q is 13 : 7. Fine the distance of Q from the fixed point O of the pantograph such that the point P moves at least 12.7 cm in either direction of live O Q P when it is horizontal. Find also the main dimensions of the pantograph.[16]

3. A quick return mechanism Link 2 rotates uniformly at 20rad/sec. Draw the acceleration polygon. Find the absolute acceleration of point B.

4. An engine mechanism ABC has a crank AB of length 4 cm rotating about A. The connecting rod BC is 12 cm long and the piston C has a mass of 100 gm. C moves along the line AC. Draw the velocity diagram and the acceleration diagram for a uniform crank speed of 150 rad/sec in clockwise direction when the angle BAC is 450. What is torque required at the crank to accelerate the piston C at this position? [16]

5. The angle between the axes of two horizontal shafts to be connected by Hook's joint is 1500. The speed of driving shaft is 150rpm. The driven shaft carries a flywheel weighing 10 Kg and having a radius of gyration of 10 Cm. If the forked end of the
driving shaft rotates 300 from horizontal plane, find the torque required to drive the shaft to overcome the inertial of the flywheel. [16]

6. A flat ended valve tappet is operated by a symmetrical cam with circular arcs for flank and nose profiles. The total angle of action is 1500 base circle diameter 125 mm and the lift 25 mm. During the lift, the period of acceleration is half that of the retardation. Speed of cam shaft is 1250 r.p.m. The straight line path of the tapper passes through the cam axis. Find (a) Radii of the nose and flank, and (b) Maximum acceleration and retardation during the lift. [16]

7. (a) What do you mea by conjugate gears? Explain how do the involute profile gear teeth satisfy it?
(b) A pair of gears having 40 and 20 teeth respectively, are rotating in mesh, the speed of the smaller being 2000 rpm. Determine
i. the speed of sliding between the gear teeth faces at the point of engagement, at the pitch point and at the point of disengagement, if the smaller
wheel is the driver. Assume that the gear teeth are of the 200 involute forms that the addendum length is 5 mm and module pitch is 5 mm.

ii. Also find the angle through which pinion turns while any one pair teeth are in contact. [8+8]

8. In an epicyclic train an annular wheel A having 54 teeth meshes with a planet wheel B
which gears with a sun wheel C, the wheels A and C being coaxial. The wheel B is carried on a pin fixed on one end of arm P which rotates about the axis of the
wheels A and C. If the wheel A makes 20 rpm in a clockwise direction and the arm P rotates at 100 rpm in the anticlockwise direction and the wheel C has 24 teeth, determine the speed and sense of rotation of arm P

2008 B.Sc Computer Science JAVA PROGRAMMING Question paper



DURATION:2 Hrs Max:50 Marks
DATE: 28-07-08 TIME :9.15a.m-11.15a.m

I Answer the following. (8*1=8)
1. OOPS allows us to decompose a problem into a number of entities called _____.
2. The wrapping up of data and methods into a single unit is known as _____ .
3. _____ means the ability to take more than one form.
4. What will be the output of the following code?
byte x= 64, y;
y=(byte) (x<<2);
System. out. println(y);
5. What will be the output of the following code:
byte b;
double d=417.35;
b=(byte) d;
System. out. println(b);
6. Given the value of a given variable, write the statement, without using if construct,
which will produce the absolute value of the variable.
7. Java compiler produces an intermedia code known as _______ for a machine that does not exist.
8. Define type casting.
II. Answer the following in short. (3*6=18)
1.   a) Why is Java known as platform-neutral languages?
b) List the eight basic data types used in Java?
2.   a) How is Java strongly associated with the Internet?
b) What is scope of a variable?
3. a) List at least five major differences between C and Java?
What is initialization? Why is it important?
III .Answer in detail. (2*12=24)
1.   a) In what ways does a switch statement differ from if statement. Explain.
b) Write a program to find the number of and sum of all integers freater than 100
and less than 200 that are divisible by 7.
2. a) Form a program to display the series of numbers in a triangle.
b) Compare the terms of their functions, the following pairs of statements:
a) while and d....while
b) while and for
c) break and continue.
2005 Calicut University B.Tech Information Technology HARDWARE SYSTEM DESIGN Question paper

2000 syllabus

answer all questions
1.a) what are the spatiality of CMOS RAM.

b) compare 8086 and 8088.

c) what is meant by interrupt books?

d) what is meant by memory paging?

e) list all modes of 8254.

f) list the features of pentium pro.

g) what is DMA? give brief explanations.

h) write short note on PCI bus. [marks 8*5=40]

2.a i) compare 80386 and 80486 with the difference in architecture. [marks 8]
ii) what are the different types of interfaces give examples? [marks 7]
b i) what is meant by BIOS? [marks 5]
ii) explain the various parts of a PC mother board. [marks 10]

3.a i) explain the addressing modes of 8086 with one example each. [marks 10]
ii) compare 8086 and 8085. [marks 5]
b i) list all arithmetic instructions of 8086. [marks 7]
ii) explain real mode and protected mode memory addressing. [marks 8]

4.a i) explain with a neat sketch the working of 8279 keyboard display interface. [marks 10]
ii) what are the features of dynamic ram. [marks 5]
b i) explain the working of a PPI(8255) [marks 10]
ii) draw the diagram of the interfacing of an ADC to 8086. [marks 5]

5.a i) explain the working of 8237 DMA controller. [marks 10]
ii) write short note on video displays. [marks 5]
b i) explain the working of 8259 interrupt controller. [marks 10]
ii) what are the different classifications of interrupts. [marks 5]




DURATION:2 Hrs Max:50 Marks
DATE: 28-07-08 TIME: 9.15a.m-11.15a.m
SECTION-A (8*1=8)

1. Expand COBOL
2. ________ is the latest version of COBOL.
3. An indicator field may contain ______.
4. A group of statement with the terminating period is called ___________.
5. A ________ gives reference to the storage space in the memory.
6. __________ literals is used to represent in double quotation.
7. ___________ is the second division of COBOL.
8. Give the example for group data type.

SECTION-B (3*6=18)

9. (a)Write the coding format of Cobol ?
(b).Write about COBOL words and character set?

10 (a). Write a COBOL program for multiplying two numbers?
(b) Write a COBOL program to print the student details (name, 5subject, tot).

11(a) Explain literals and different type of literals
(b) Explain level structure with example and value clause?

SECTION-C (2*12=24)

12. Explain the four divisions in COBOL? (or)

13. Explain the picture clause with example?

14. Explain arithmetic verbs with example? (or)

15. Explain input-output verbs with example?

2005 Calicut University B.Tech Information Technology DATA MODELING AND DESIGN Question Paper

2k syllabus

Answer all questions

1.a) explain how object differs from variable.
b) give example for function over loading. also specify the rules.
c) with an example, explain class diagram.
d) what do you mean by window navigation diagram? explain.
e) explain the significance of cohesion with examples.
f) explain principle of type conformance.
g) compare multilevel and multiple inheritance.
h) what are components? describe. [marks 8*5=40]

2.a i) highlight the salient features of OO programming. [marks 8]
ii) discuss the significance of message passing with 2 distinct examples. [marks 7]
b i) what is runtime polymorphism? explain. [marks 8]
ii) with simple example, differentiate the benefits of inheritance over non-inheritance based applications.
[marks 7]

3.a i) compare association and aggregation of classes. [marks 8]
ii) explain the use of sequence diagrams. [marks 7]
b i) draw the state diagram corresponding to the transaction in a bank by a customer. [marks 8]
ii) what is the significance of architecture diagram? explain. [marks 7]

4.a i) for an application of your choice, bring out class invariants, preconditions and post conditions [marks 8]
ii) with examples, discuss the types of visibility levels of classes. [marks 7]
b i) what is coupling? how is it different for procedure and object oriented systems? [marks 8]
ii) discuss the features of encapsulation in detail. [marks 7]

5.a i) highlight the characteristics of polymorphism? [marks 8]
ii) are components different from objects? how? [marks 7]
b i) what is template? explain with example. [marks8]
ii) why and how maxim lasses are useful for OO applications. [marks 7]
B.Tech I Semester Supplimentary Examinations, February 2008

2007 Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University


(Computer Science & Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Design a DFA for the following language. L = {0m1n/m  0 and n  1} .
(b) Represent all five tuples for below transition (diagram 1b) and decide whether
it is DFA or NFA. [8+8]

2. (a) Design a Moore Machine to determine the residue mod 4 for each binary string
treated as integer.

(b) Design a Mealy machine that uses its state to remember the last symbol read
and emits output 'y' whenever current input matches to previous one, and
emits n otherwise. [8+8]

3. Find a Regular expression corresponding to each of the following subsets over
(a) The set of all strings containing no three consecutive 0's.
(b) The set of all strings where the 10th symbol from right end is a 1.
(c) The set of all strings over {0,1} having even number of 0's & odd number of
(d) The set of all strings over {0,1} in which the number of occurrences of is
divisible by 3. [44]

4. (a) Obtain a CFG to generate unequal number of a's and b's.
(b) Obtain a CFG to obtain balanced set of parentheses.(i.e every left parentheses
should match with the corresponding right parentheses). [28]

5. (a) What do you mean by ambiguity? Show that the grammar S ! S/S, S ! a is

(b) Show that the grammar G with production
S ! a/aAb/abSb
A!aAAb/bS is ambiguous. [8+8]

6. (a) Explain the terms: Push Down Automata and context free language.
(b) Let G be a CFG with the following productions.
S ! a B c
A ! a b c
B ! a A b
C ! A B
C ! c
Construct a PDA M such that the language generated by M and G are equiv-
alent. [8+8]

7. Give a Turing machine for the following:
(a) That computes ones complement of a binary number
(b) That shifts the input string, over the alphabet (0,1) by one position right by
inserting '#'as the first character. [8+8]

8. (a) What is decidability? Explain any two undecidable problems.
(b) Show that the following post correspondence problem has a solution and give
the solution. [8+8]

I List A List B
1 11 11
2 100 001
3 111 11

Merlon Consultancy

Experience : [blink]0 - 2 Years[/blink]


Education : UG - Any Graduate - Any Specialization;Graduation Not Required;Diploma - Any Specialization PG - Any PG Course - Any Specialization;Post Graduation Not Required;Other

Industry Type : BPO/ITES /CRM/Transcription

Functional Area : ITES/BPO/KPO, Customer Service, Ops.

Job Description

Walk in and get spot offers with Allsec Technologies for Outbound voice process.
Walk in Venue: Merlon Consultancy

Dates:6th,7th and 8th September

Time:10:30 AM to 6 PM

Call us for details on interview process at 9940134006/ 9444965426/64586373.

Desired Candidate Profile

Graduates / Diploma holders (10 + 2 + 3 years of education). Those pursuing final year graduation through correspondence are also eligible. 12th pass outs with prior international call center experience will also be considered.

Age-18 to 32 years

Company Profile

Our client, Allsec technologies Ltd is a pure play third party BPO company offering both voice and non voice services on a blended delivery platform. They are looking for Customer Support Officers for their outbound division.Freshers can also walk in

Contact Details

Company Name:Merlon Consultancy


Executive Name:Karthik/Praveen


Merlon Consultancy
No 6
Sengunthar Street
Shenoy Nagar
Chennai,Tamilnadu,INDIA 600030

DotNet Trainees

Shlok Information Systems India Pvt Ltd

Experience:0 - 1 Years


Education:UG - Any Graduate - Any Specialization;Graduation Not Required PG - Any PG Course - Any Specialization;Post Graduation Not Required

Industry Type : IT-Software/ Software Services

Functional Area : Application Programming, Maintenance

Job Description

Real time delivery with the .NET framework including ASP.NET , VB.net. Preferably MS - SQL Server.

Desired Candidate Profile

- B.E/B.Tech, B.Sc, BCA, M.Tech candidates having knowledge of .Net , Asp.Net, VB.Net. Excellent communication skills, Presentation skills and hard working nature is must. Microsoft Certification in .net will be an added advantage.

Company Profile

SHLOK (www.shloklabs.com) is an IT Solution Provider with our offices in Lisbon (Portugal) and Coimbatore (India). Established in 2003 and working exclusively in overseas assignments.

Contact Details

Company Name:Shlok Information Systems India Pvt Ltd

Website : http://www.shloklabs.com

Executive Name : J.Kavi Priya

Address :

Shlok Information Systems India Pvt Ltd
Coimbatore,TAMILNADU,INDIA 641045

Email Address : hr@shloklabs.com

Telephone : 91-0422-4395838
Beware of fraudulent money offers through emails

BEWARE! DON'T get swayed away with illusionary dreams if you receive any email in your inbox assuring you a handsome amount in US dollars or UK pounds from any foreign entity regarding lotteries or any other pretext. The smallest step may snatch your hard earned money, thus Reserve Bank of India (RBI), too, has cautioned consumers against such attempts of phishing.

If you are regular user of Internet and have an email ID, perhaps then you may not fall in the trap of such spams but the new users might easily become prey to easy money making, says a cyber cafe owner.

In fact, these days, fraudulent offers of huge money in foreign exchange are being made through letters/ emails by certain foreign entities or individuals, including Indian residents acting as representatives of such entities or individuals. The offers of huge money in foreign currency are made to resident individuals/entities (including schools/hospitals) on the pretext of helping them in their business/ventures in India. The sender of such mails also, in buttressed words, claims the receiver is the luckiest among others.

Once the contact is established, the entities request for details of bank accounts of the individuals or Indian entity and ask for some amount to be remitted to them as initial deposit/commission so that the offer money could be transferred.

Even copies of fake certificates or deposits receipts purported to have been issued by the Reserve Bank of India are produced by such operators, some experienced Internet surfers underlined.

It is to be mention that following the considerable complaints from across India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has cautioned the people not to fall prey to such fictitious offers of victory in lottery coming through emails, post or couriers asking for your banking details, be it your bank account or the credit/debt card.

The RBI, in a public notice, has appealed people not to make any payment or remittance towards participation in such schemes/offers from unknown entities.

It has been learnt that the remittance in any form towards participation in lottery schemes is prohibited under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. Secondly, through this notice, RBI has made it clear that it does not maintain any account in the name of individuals/companies/trusts in India to hold funds for disbursal.

Using the Windows Vista Activation Wizard

In order to functionally activate Microsoft Windows Vista OS versions using the Windows Vista activation wizard, you need to do the following:

    * Click on the Start button found on the leftmost bottom portion of the desktop
    * Click on the Computer option from the selection
    * Then click on Properties from the list of options
    * Click on the Click Here option in order to functionally activate your Windows Vista OS version (please be advised that in order to do this, you would need to have administrator permission privileges)

Afterwards, you can key in the password or the confirmation code if you are asked to provide your machine with proof of administrator admission privileges. Then, you can choose from the list of options provided by the wizard in order to continue with the activation process. This means you can activate your Microsoft Windows Vista-operated machine online or via phone. But if you choose to activate your Microsoft Windows Vista-based machine online, your OS will only be activated 3 days right after your first attempt of logging on the World Wide Web.

After activating your Microsoft Windows Vista-operated machine, you should keep in mind to set up the security configuration settings of your machine before connecting it to the internet and browsing through the World Wide Web. This will help you prevent malicious software programs from penetrating your system. With this, you should also install a good anti-viral software program which comes bundled with a wide array of security tools. These security tools should include Spyware/Adware/Malware/Virus detection and removal functions together with firewall security options. You should also make it a point to schedule your anti-viral program to regularly update its virus definitions since this would help you avoid new malicious software programs from penetrating your machine.
Distributed Computing - And How it Works

Distributed computing refers to the means by which a single computer program runs in more than one computer at the same time. In particular, the different elements and objects of a program are being run or processed using different computer processors.

Distributed computing is similar to parallel computing and grid computing. Parallel computing, though, refers to running a single program using a minimum of two processors that belong to one computer. Grid computing, on the other hand, refers to a more dedicated distributed computing setup - one whose computer 'members' are especially dedicated to the program being processed.

Distinct Characteristics

In a distributed computing setup, the program runs like it would in a single computer even when it is, in fact, using different computer processors. This means that no single computer carries the entire burden on system resources that running a computer program usually implies.

However, distributed computing is not actually used to lighten the load of an individual computer's processor. It is in fact done to be able to process or run complex and resource-draining programs with greater speed and efficiency. Distributed computing, in effect, can be deemed as an attempt to produce a virtual supercomputer out of hundreds or thousands of individual computers.

Dedicated Servers

The distributed computing setup is usually called a peer-to-peer architecture. In actual fact, however, distributed computing is not peer-to-peer since individual computers do not actually directly communicate with each other. There's at least one dedicated distributed computing management server that coordinates the efforts across the whole network of computers that are contributing their system resources to the collective effort.

In a distributed computing setup, there is one or more servers which contain the blueprint for the coordinated program efforts, the information needed to access member computers, and the applications that will automate distribution of the program processes when such is needed. It is also in the distributed computing administrative servers that the distributed processes are coordinated and combined, and they are where the program outputs are generated.

How Distributive Computing Works

A computer that is part of a distributed computing network usually has a program installed in it that is its direct link to the administrative server or servers. The software remains dormant in the individual computer until such time that the computer's system becomes idle (the user is not using his resources). At this point, the software will be activated and will inform the administrative server about available resources in the computer. The administrative server will respond by sending an application package to the requesting computer. The moment the user has need of his own resources again, the management server will immediately relinquish the resources that it has been monopolizing, back to the owner of the computer.
Converting FLV to MPEG

It is quite simple to convert FLV files to MPEG; all that is required is conversion software. The good news is that there are plenty of free conversion software products available. For power and professional users, you can also find commercial software that includes extensive bells and whistles.

While software products differ, for the most part, conversion is simple and only takes a short period of time for a full conversion of FLV to MPEG to take place. Most software products require you to launch the program and choose the type of conversion you would like. Besides converting FLV files to MPEG, many products allow you to choose other conversions such as FLV to AVI, WMV, etc.

Once the type of conversion has been selected, you can select the FLV file to be converted and choose the output folder of the new converted file. Additionally, many software products allow you to select specific settings such as output video height and width, frame rate, video bit rate, audio bit rate, etc. Once your settings and all information has been inputted, you usually just need to hit enter and wait for the conversion to take place. A confirmation from the software should notify you once the conversion is complete and whether or not it was a success or if it encountered any errors.
Windows Remote Access is a set of components which allow remote users to access centralized computing resources.

Windows Remote Access consists of the following components:

Remote Access Clients

Computers which are running a Windows operating system creates either a dial-up or virtual private network connection to the remote access server. The remote access client can use either a manually configured connection or a Connection Manager (CM) profile.
Remote Access Server

A computer running a member of the Windows 2000 Server or Windows Server 2003 families and the Routing and Remote Access service configured for Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) authentication.


A computer running a member of the Windows 2000 or Windows Server 2003 families and the Internet Authentication Service (IAS).

Accounts Database

For Windows 2000 or Windows Server 2003-based networks, the Active Directory directory service is used as the accounts database, which stores user accounts and their dial-in properties.

Remote Access Policy

On the server running IAS, a remote access policy that provides authorization and connection constraints are configured for remote access connections.
How do I Setup a Remote Desktop Web

Remote Desktop Web Connection is a useful alternative to the regular Remote Desktop because it can be used without installing any software on the client machine.

Remote Desktop Web Connection is able to do this because it runs within a web browser such as Internet Explorer. The web browser must support Active-X controls to support Remote Desktop Web Connection.

Steps to Setup Remote Desktop Web Connection

    * Click on Start.
    * Go to Control Panel.
    * Select Add or Remove Programs.
    * Go to Add/ Remove windows components.
    * Select Internet Information services( IIS) and click on Details.
    * Click on the World Wide Web service.
    * Now select Remote Desktop Web Connection and click ok.
    * Now in click next in the Windows Components Wizard dialog box.
    * Now open Internet Services Manager.
    * Expand the folder hierarchy until you reach the local computer name\Web Sites\Default Web Site\tsweb folder.
    * Now right click on the tsweb folder and then click Properties.
    * Click the Dircetory Security tab on the Properties dialog box.
    * In Anonymous Access and Authentication Control, click Edit.
    * Check the Anonymous Access check box on the Authentication Methods dialog box, and then click OK twice.
Wireless digital-music system offers great sound but no iTunes

Sonos has been around since 2005, when the small company introduced its first multiroom digital music system to glowing reviews (including a CNET.com Editors' Choice Award).

The product was comprised of two base stations and a unique (for the time) remote with a full-color screen that allowed you to wirelessly access your computer's digital music collection as well as a wide range of Internet radio and subscription services.

Since then, Sonos has reconfigured the system a couple of times, swapping in new base stations (or ZonePlayers, as Sonos calls them) and delivering several firmware upgrades that have added navigation improvements and more features, such as compatibility with online music services Rhapsody and Pandora.

The latest tweak to the configuration is the Sonos Bundle 150 (BU150). It adds two slightly retooled ZonePlayers (one's a bit smaller, and both offer 802.11n wireless, which should deliver better range), and keeps the same scroll wheel color-screen controller, the CR100.

The result is, not surprisingly, the same excellent streaming-music experience Sonos has delivered for the better part of three years.

That said, we're disappointed that Sonos hasn't upped the ante on features--or dropped the price (it's still $1,000 for a two-room system). For instance: the $230 Apple TV and $400 Logitech Squeezebox Duet can connect to a home network directly via Wi-Fi, while the Sonos architecture still requires the first base station (or a $100 ZoneBridge accessory) to be wired to your home network.

rentals on the Apple product (plus compatibility with DRM-encoded iTunes music purchases) and access to a wider range of online music services (including free offerings from Last.fm, Live Music Archive, and Slacker) on the Logitech. (Note: Last.fm and CNET are both subsidiaries of CBS.)

That's not to say that the Sonos Digital Music System isn't a great audio streamer--you could pay far more for "whole home audio" systems and get something that's much harder to use and far less flexible--but Sonos needs to kick it up a notch if it wants to further distinguish itself from its increasingly savvy competitors who are offering multiroom-capable systems that are good enough for most people.

The basic components

There are three main components of the Sonos Digital Music System: two ZonePlayer base stations--one ZP120, one ZP90--and one CR100 Controller (the remote control). Each one is available separately as well; additional ZP120s are $500, the ZP90 is $350, and the CR100 goes for $400--so the $1,000 price tag of the BU130 bundle represents a $250 savings versus buying them a la carte.

Take one look at the silver-and-white color scheme (and that scroll wheel on the remote), and you get the idea that Sonos wants you to think that its understated sleek components would fit right into Apple's iPod line--and they would. We just wish a black option was available, as well.

The ZonePlayer ZP120 houses a fully fledged, 55-watt-per-channel, Class-D digital amplifier and weighs 5 pounds. Its die-cast, matte-aluminum enclosure feels far more solid and substantive than most of today's all-plastic consumer electronics.

It sports two pairs of high-quality speaker binding posts, one set of analog stereo inputs (for attaching and playing any external device through the Sonos system), a subwoofer output, and a built-in two-port Ethernet switch. Onboard buttons are limited to three--volume up/down and mute--because the main functions are controlled either by the CR100 remote or by a Windows or Mac computer on your home network.

The ZP120 replaces the similar ZP100 ZonePlayer; however, it weighs half as much, and fills out at a smaller 3.5-inch high by 7.3-inch wide by 8.15-inch deep footprint--about the size of seven DVD cases stacked on top of one another. The reduced size is welcome, but we were miffed that the ZP120 retains its predecessor's price even though it cuts down on the features: the Ethernet ports are reduced from four to two, and there's no analog audio output (for connecting to external amplifiers or AV receivers).

With its built-in amp and speaker terminals, the ZP120 needs only a pair of speakers connected to fill a room with music--no other audio equipment is required. (Sonos offers the SP100 speakers, but nearly any set of speakers will suffice.) But the ZP90 ZonePlayer is intended for those rooms where there's already an audio system in place. Just about anything will do--a tabletop radio, a mini-system, an iPod speaker system, or a full-fledged AV receiver--so long as it has an auxiliary line-in jack.

Because it lacks the built-in amplifier, the ZonePlayer ZP90 is smaller than its big brother; it measures just 2.9 by 5.4-inches square and weighs a mere 1.5 pounds. As a result, it can fit in plenty of tight spots that the larger ZonePlayer can't. The front panel offers the same sparse volume controls, but the ZP90's tiny backside is chock-full of jacks: in addition to analog stereo inputs and outputs, there are also two digital audio outputs (one coaxial, one optical) for single-wire all-digital connections. Two Ethernet jacks provide network connectivity. (As far as we can tell, the ZP90 is identical to its predecessor, the ZP80, except for the upgrade to faster 802.11n wireless.)

Tying the system together is the CR100 Sonos Controller. The wireless remote control is 4-inches wide by 6.5-inches long and just an inch deep, and its front face is dominated by a 3.5-inch color LCD screen and a scroll wheel that looks as if it was ripped straight off an iPod. The remote is designed to be operated with both hands, but the scroll wheel necessitates only 11 buttons--volume controls are on the left, three context-sensitive keys are under the LCD, and six keys (play/pause, track up, track down, zones, back, and music) flank the scroll wheel on the right.

Unlike the ambidextrous iPod (and single-hand Logitech Squeezebox Controller), the right-side orientation of the control wheel might bother lefties. Likewise, some users will initially fight the urge to let their fingers do the walking--the LCD is not a touch screen.

But those are quibbles with an otherwise excellent remote that combines the ease of use of an iPod with a larger and easier-to-read screen. Navigation is simple and intuitive, and the screen displays album art for files and music services to support that function. Another nice touch: the hard keys' backlight automatically kicks in when activated in a dark room.

The biggest issue with the remote is battery life. The remote conserves power by automatically "sleeping" after a few minutes of inactivity, then it reawakens as soon as it's picked up. The battery is rechargeable, of course, with the included AC adapter (a more convenient cradle charger, the Sonos CC100, is available separately for $50).

And you'd be wise to keep the remote attached to the charger when it's not in use--for instance, after we frequently used the remote for one day, its battery charge was nearly halfway depleted. But the battery isn't removable, and--like all other rechargeable batteries--it will eventually struggle to keep a charge after a few years of rigorous usage. (In the unlikely event that it dies during the 12-month warranty period, Sonos will replace the remote for free; thereafter, it'll cost you $100.)

Cognizant CTS Walkin On 30th Aug-31st Aug 08 at Hyderabad

Experience Required: [blink]4 - 7 Years[/blink]

Job Location : Hyderabad

Company Name: Cognizant (CTS)

Skills Required: Java

Walk-in Date : 30 August 2008 - 31 August 2008

Walk-in Time : 09:00 a.m - 02:00 p.m

Job Description :

Java Associate \ Senior Associate

- Strong Core Java fundamentals(Including Collections, Exceptions, Concept of Interfaces abstract classes, Access specifies, Constructors, JDBC, Threading etc)
- Good practical knowledge on JSP, HTML, JavaScript, Servelets
- Understanding of projects - Clear understanding of projects worked on and business implications and benefits
- SDLC : Good understanding of different phases
- OOPs - Practical understanding of concepts and ability to use them in different situations
- Design : Good exposure to Design patterns
- Good practical exposure to EJBs
- Practical exposure to one Web server and one app server
- Working knowledge on at least one standard data base
- Good Communication skills

Walkin Venue :

Cognizant Technology Solutions
Vanenburg IT Park, IInd phase, Orion Block IIIrd floor
# 17, Software Units Layout, Madhapur,
Hyderabad 500 081
Choose an E-Commerce Product

What is ecommerce?

Ecommerce can be described as a commerce conducted electronically. It is the whole process of being able to make a sale of the product over the World Wide Web.
Electronic commerce that is conducted between businesses is referred to as Business-to-business or B2B. B2B can be open to all interested parties (e.g. commodity exchange) or limited to specific, pre-qualified participants (private electronic market).
Electronic commerce is generally considered to be the sales aspect of e-business. It also consists of the exchange of data to facilitate the financing and payment aspects of the business transactions.

How does one go about choosing an ecommerce product?

It is my observation that while selecting an ecommerce product (www.ritecart.co.uk) most of the customers seem to be asking themselves the following set of questions
How will it appear on the customer side?
Will it be an attractive website?
Will it display all of my products?
Can I use open source and do some developments specific to my requirement?

These questions are valid and are important but these questions should be asked only after the selection of product is done. It is very important for business, which are for a long haul to really look for ROI (Return of Investment) from their ecommerce product (www.ritecart.co.uk).
Before selection of any product, it is very useful to list down why you need a product or software, in this case ecommerce software?
Some of the answers will be/can be

Increase presence in Online market and thereby have more sales
Introduce a new channel of business- Have a new online channel for selling goods
Establish Brand name, making future rollout of products/commodities easier
Simplify management of all sales and inventories
Increase productivity by integrating both Online and Offline model
Increase visibility of the entire business operations by integrating both online and offline models together
Be competitive, Just because a neighbor doing it!!!

I like the last one, because that way, one doesn't have to really think hard but to follow his neighbor!!
Anyways, once one has his reasons chalked out, he would have also realized that this is a true line of business and needs much more investigation, investment and business initiative to make it a real success.

Online business can be only successful as successful as the tool is (the ecommerce product). To draw a comparison, one may want to travel 80 miles in an hr and may be really trying hard but that ain't be possible with a bullock cart or may be even with a horse wagon. One would atleast need a car to make that happen.
Coming back to success, success of the ecommerce product  would lie on how the product fares with all of the following aspects.

1. Ease of configuration
2. Ability to Scale
3. Useful latest features
4. Available marketing tools with the product
5. Ability to analyze data (analytics, not only google analytics!!)
6. Reports
7. Integration (with other modules, Like epos with near realtime online/offline synchronization of data and other packaged application )
8. Customer Service
9. Technical Support
10. Technical Implementation Aspects
11. Build vs Buy

Gift / Prizes Request / Topup Request
Aug 28, 2008, 01:16 AM
User Name : sams.raghu
Date  : 27 Aug 08
Status : Urgent
Postcount : 32
Information : Airtel Prepaid Chennai
Total No of Post you made so far : Ex 674 posts : 427
Type of the Gift : Mobile Topup
Select Your Service Provider : Airtel Prepaid

Here by i declare that , before sending this request. I have verified my todays post. So Please check the topup status and confirm it.
[blink]Note : You will be given Warning if you are trying to test this Form or Found Fake[/blink]
MBA Abroad: Comparison of MBA Destinations

With universities from so many countries aggressively marketing their MBA degree in India, it often becomes difficult to decide which should be your final destination. While considering this, it is important to remember that the presentations and seminars conducted by the foreign universities are purely marketing exercises, and would reveal only the rosy picture about the universities. In such a scenario, it becomes crucial to make an objective assessment of the various options you have. Finally, it has to be your decision, as you are the only one being affected by it. We can help you decide by presenting a few facts, and throwing up the criteria that you ought to consider.

1. Eligibility

This is the first thing to look at. The requirements vary with each university, and there's always some flexibility in the system. However, the generally accepted norms are as follows:

US/Canada - Min. 4 yrs education after 10+2
Australia/NZ - 3-year graduation accepted
UK - 3-year graduation accepted

US/Canada - Essential
Australia/NZ - Not required for most B-schools
UK - Recommended

Work experience
US/Canada - Recommended/Reqd for most schools
Australia - Essential
UK - Essential

2. Your potential

How realistically you can assess yourself counts a lot. With some introspection and self-analysis, you should be able to pinpoint your strengths and weaknesses, and decide where you're headed for.

If you think you have the calibre to get into the top B-schools like Harvard and Wharton, the choice is easy. In addition to the top US B-schools, you can also consider the best European schools like London Business School and INSEAD, France. The advantage of Europe is that you complete your MBA in a year. But of course, it's difficult to match the might of the Harvard Business School.

A mid-tier B-school in the US is still better than most mid-tier B-schools in other parts of the world. So if you consider yourself to be above average but not top of the league, the U.S. should be your first choice.

If you're just average or slightly below, and keen on getting a global MBA degree, it'll probably make more sense to look at options other than the U.S., viz. Canada, Australia, or New Zealand. Of course, you need to look at the other factors also.

3. Job Prospects

How realistically you can assess yourself counts a lot. With some introspection and self-analysis, you should be able to pinpoint your strengths and weaknesses, and decide where you're headed for.

Chances of employment
Australia - Fair
Canada - Good
New Zealand - Fair
U.K. - Fair
U.S.A. - Good

Work Permit
Australia - Not so easy
Canada - Easy
New Zealand - Fair
U.K. - For 2 years
U.S.A. - Easy

4. Life after MBA

What you intend to do after completing your MBA has a strong bearing on your choice of a destination.

If you've decided that you'll stay back and do a job, you do not have much choice beyond the U.S. and Canada. These are the only two countries where you can get unconditional employment. However, getting a job is not always easy.

Getting a work permit in Australia is very difficult.

The UK has recently allowed international MBA students to work there for a limited period of two years provided they get a job.

If you're keen on coming back, or have certain obligations (like a family business) which compel you to return, you could choose any of the countries that best suits your budget, time, and temperament.

If you are undecided on this, U.S. or Canada are still the best choices. You get the opportunity to work there, and can always return if you so wish.

5. Cost

The tuition fees may vary greatly depending on the institute. We here compare the approximate average expenses of doing an MBA in various countries.

Cost Figures in Indian Rupees (Lakhs)

Tuition Fees (full cost)
Australia - 8.00
Canada - 9.30
New Zealand - 7.00
U.K. - 8.5
U.S. (Public) - 10.35
U.S. (Private) - 19.35

Living Costs (annual)
Australia - 4.00
Canada - 3.10
New Zealand - 2.50
U.K. - 4.5
U.S. (Public) - 5.40
U.S. (Private) - 5.40

Australia - 12-18 months
Canada - 18-24 months
New Zealand - 12-15 months
U.K. - 1 year
U.S. (Public) - 2 years
U.S. (Private) - 2 years

Total Cost
Australia - 12.00
Canada - 15.50
New Zealand - 9.5
U.K. - 13.00
U.S. (Public) - 21.15
U.S. (Private) - 30.15


* All costs shown are in Indian Rupees
* Exchange rates used are:
1 US Dollar = Rs. 46
1 UK Pound = Rs. 80
1 Australian Dollar = Rs. 32
1 Canadian Dollar = Rs. 32
1 New Zealand Dollar = Rs. 24

Convert into the latest conversion rates.

6. Life, as you see it

For many people, this is the bottomline. We've known students who've chosen New Zealand over anywhere else, because they wanted a "relaxed" life. However, this is totally a matter of individual perception. Doing an MBA in the U.S. or U.K. is quite a demanding and strenuous proposition, whereas the scene in South Pacific is quite different. The choice is yours!

Ph.D. in Business Administration
Major in Information Systems
at Earl G. Graves School of Business
Admissions 2009

The Programme

The Information Science & Systems Department is one of the departments in the Earl G. Graves School of Business & Management at Morgan State University. All programs at all levels in the Graves School are AACSB accredited.
The School is housed in a state-of-the-art building with ultra modern classrooms that have the latest multimedia presentation facilities. The Department offers courses at the Undergraduate level, Graduate level and the Ph. D. level.

The Ph.D. in Information Systems program prepares graduates for careers in teaching, research and consulting in various functional areas of business. Graduates of the program are expected to make significant contributions to the advancement of knowledge of business practices through research and consulting and to disseminate such knowledge through their teaching.


A Masters Degree in Business from an AACSB-accredited college or university with a GPA of 3.0 or higher. Students without such backgrounds will be required to take MBA level business courses at an AACSB-accredited institution in order to ensure adequate preparation prior to enrollment in required doctoral courses. Outstanding applicants who only possess a Bachelors degree may be considered for admission, if they possess a GPA of at least 3.5.

A satisfactory score on the Graduate Management Admissions Test (GMAT) taken no more than three years prior to applying.

For students from non-English speaking countries, a minimum score of 550 on the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL). The exam must not have been taken more than three years prior to applying. This requirement may be waived for students who have had at least a year of university-level education in English.

Three completed recommendation forms from people who are qualified to comment on the applicant's academic preparation and potential for success in the Doctoral Program.


An essay on professional plans and what role the doctorate will play in attaining them.

Additional International Student Forms


Admission into the Doctoral Program is in the fall semester only. The deadline for applications is February 1, 2009. All applications must be complete and include all supporting documents and test scores before they can be considered.

Funding Options

Graduate Assistantships

Teaching Assistantships

Graduate Fellowships

Federal Student Loans

Contact the Ph.D. Program Director / Graduate School for other sources

KPMG Scholarship

Contact Details

For any query, contact: -
Leyland Lucas,
Ph.D. Program Director,
Earl G. Graves School of Business & Management,
Morgan State University,
McMechen Hall, Room 634,
1700 East Cold Spring Lane,
Baltimore MD 21251
Telephone: (443) 885-3007 / (443) 885-3160
E-mail: leyland.lucas@morgan.edu
Website: http://is.morgan.edu/
URL: http://www.morgan.edu/academics/SBM/busadmn/SBMPHDProgram.asp
MBA Abroad: Is it worth the money?

PostPosted: Wed Jun 04, 2008 7:01 am    Post subject: [Note] MBA Abroad: Is it worth the money?    Reply with quote
MBA Abroad: Is it worth the money?

Even by the most conservative estimates, pursuing an MBA degree abroad would set you back by at least Rs. 10 lakhs, if you have to shell out the money on your own. This could go up to as much as Rs. 30 lakhs for the top U.S. B-schools. Financial aid is limited, and comes with strings attached. Given the exorbitant expenditure involved, is it really worth it?

The answer depends on a lot of factors, and ultimately, has to come from you. We can help you evaluate the scenario by laying out these factors before you. The factors have to be considered in conjunction with each other, rather than in isolation. Weigh them carefully, and decide to what extent each factor is applicable to you.

1. How much would it pinch you?

MONEY! This, of course, is the bottomline. Start with the assumption that you are not going to get any scholarship, as getting financial aid for an MBA program is really tough. Then look at the resources at your disposal (could be your own bank account, or your parents', or any benefactor you may have)

If you have sufficient funds (Rs. 10-15 lakhs), our recommendation is: just go ahead. It'll surely prove to be money well spent - the experience itself is great!

If you can spare some amount (Rs. 5-6 lakhs), you could still consider going, as you'll be able to manage the first few semesters on your own. Once you're there, you'll have to find ways to raise some money (most Indian students manage this, at least the smart ones certainly do!)

If you are constrained on cash, but can manage a bank loan, it still makes sense to go ahead. However, you must be confident that you will do well in the program and manage to get a job. (Jobs are really hard to find in places like Australia and UK).

If you don't belong to any of the above categories, how about trying for an Indian MBA?

Note: The bottomline is an MBA abroad is worth the money. Even if you spend 15 lakhs doing an MBA from a good school, you will recover the money within a year of passing out. Start thinking like a business manager even before your MBA.

2. What are your alternatives?

Quote : 'The choices you make decide the life you lead'.

A lot depends on what options you have here.

If you've been toying with the idea of going abroad for an MBA, what are the other options that you have? Would you rather do it from a top-rung Indian institute, like the IIMs? Well, the answer totally depends on your aspirations.

If you've cracked the CAT, go for it. The IIMs are among the best in the world. However, if you have to choose between IIM and a top institute like Harvard or London Business School, it makes sense to choose the latter. The exposure and contacts that you'll get in a top school are simply unmatchable.An M.B.A. from a top-rung B-school will almost certainly propel you in the global job market, and you'll soon be on your way to the top of the ladder.

If your choice is between a mid-tier B-school abroad and an average Indian institute, it makes IMMENSE sense to go abroad. The mid-tier schools abroad offer much better career prospects. An MBA from a mid-range U.S. B-school also has fairly healthy prospects, given the buoyant state of the US economy in the last few years.

If you have close relatives abroad, who can help you with funds and/or getting you an employment on completion of your MBA, you are in an enviable position. However, make sure you talk to the relatives before you apply.

However, unless you have the ways and means to find yourself an employment, we would not recommend going to just any U.S. B-school that you can get into.

3. What do you plan to do after the MBA?

This is probably the most important criterion.

The critical question is : DO YOU WISH TO SETTLE THERE?
50% of the people who come to us say "yes" to this. The other 50% say they'll come back, after staying on for a few years.
Ultimately, very few come back.

If you are sure of taking up a job abroad, rather, managing to get yourself a job, then it makes sense to even take a loan to go abroad for an MBA. In all likelihood, you'll repay the loan within a year. (Going by the average salaries Indians manage after their MBA).

This is applicable mainly to the US & Canada. Getting a work permit in Australia is very difficult. UK has recently allowed international MBA students to work for two years.

If you're planning to return to India immediately on completion, you should think twice before going, unless funds are not a consideration for you.

The often-asked question is : how valuable is the international MBA degree in India? The answer depends on which school you do your MBA from: a Harvard degree will command respect anywhere in the world. If you're from a middle-rung school, you're as good as an MBA from a mid-rung Indian B-school.
Institutes / Universities offering MBA programs in Canada

University of Alberta
School of Business - Alberta MBA Program

Address MBA Program Office
Alberta School of Business
University of Alberta
2-30 Business Building
Edmonton, Alberta
Canada T6G 2R6
Telephone: +1.780.492.3946
Fax: +1.780.492.7825


University of British Columbia
Sauder School of Business

Sauder School of Business
2053 Main Mall
Vancouver, B.C.
Canada V6T 1Z2
Office Hours
Monday to Friday
8:30 am - 4:30 pm (PT)
Telephone and Fax
Tel 604-822-8500
Fax 604-822-8521


University of Calgary
Haskayne School of Business - The Haskayne MBA

Postal Address
Haskayne School of Business
University of Calgary
2500 University Drive N.W.
Calgary, Alberta
Canada T2N 1N4
Courier Address :
Scurfield Hall, Third Floor
University of Calgary
2500 University Drive N.W.
Calgary, Alberta
Canada T2N 1N4
Telephone: (403) 220-5685
Fax: (403) 282-0095

(Course Based MBA)
(Thesis Based MBA)

Concordia University
John Molson School of Business

The John Molson MBA
John Molson School of Business
Concordia University
1550 de Maisonneuve Blvd West, Suite GM-710
Montreal, Quebec H3G 1N2
Tel: (514) 848-2424 ext. 2708
Fax:(514) 848-2816


HEC Montreal
HEC Montreal - Intensive MBA

HEC Montral
3000 Chemin de la Cte-Sainte-Catherine
Montreal, Quebec, Canada H3T 2A7
Telephone: (514) 340-6000 / 514-340-6957
Fax: (514) 340-6411


McGill University
Faculty of Management - McGill MBA

Faculty of Management
McGill University
MBA Program
1001 Sherbrooke Street West
Montreal, Quebec
H3A 1G5
Tel.: 514-398-4066
Fax: 514-398-2499


McMaster University
DeGroote School of Business - Co-op MBA Program

Michael G. DeGroote School of Business
1280 Main Street
Hamilton, Ontario
L8S 4M4
Phone: (905) 525-9140 ext. 24105
Fax: 905-521-8995


University of Ottawa
University of Ottawa School of Management

136 Jean-Jacques Lussier
Ottawa, Ontario
K1N 6N5
(613) 562-5884 or
(800) 965-5512
Fax: (613) 562-5912


University of Western Ontario
Richard Ivey School of Business

MBA Program Office, Room 2G02
Richard Ivey School of Business
The University of Western Ontario
1151 Richmond Street North
London, Ontario
Canada N6A 3K7
Telephone: (519) 661-3212
Fax: (519) 661-3431

D.I.Group of Companies

Experience : 1 - 2 Years

Location : Chennai

Education : UG - B.Tech/B.E. - Mechanical;Diploma - Any Specialization PG - Any PG Course - Any Specialization

Industry Type : Industrial Products/Heavy Machinery

Functional Area : Engineering Design, R&D

Job Description

Diploma / B.E. / B.Tech./ NTTF with excellent experience in Autocad / Pro-E / Solid work / Mastercam.

Desired Candidate Profile

Candidates should have experience in 3D moulding in Pro-E, Catia or solid work and should have knowledge in Autocad to design various Industrial & Fashion Accessories. Candidate with a minimum experience of 1 year and above can apply.

Company Profile

We are D.I. Group of Company in the field of various business activities for more than two decades. This recruitment is for one of our Group Company D.I. Products.
David's Leather Accessories & Allied products has been manufacturing Leather Accessories supplying to leading Leather goods, Garments & Shoe Exporters in India.

D. I Products & Sea Queen Fishing Tackles has been manufacturing & importing fishing products for past 15 years and are also publishing monthly Magazine

Contact Details

Company Name:D.I.Group of Companies

Executive Name:Mr. David Israel


DIGroup of Companies
Transcore Building
No. 2/4, Dr. VSI Estate,
Chennai,Tamil Nadu,INDIA 600041

Email Address : seaqueen@airtelbroadband.in , seaqueenlure@yahoo.co.in

ST MicroElectronics at Thapar University

A ladder is standing against a wall of 25m height at a distance of 7 km from wall. Suddenly Ladder slips 4m down from top. How much will it move from the earlier 7m distance from the wall?
A person likes 225 not 224, like 900 not 800, from given vat will he like...1600,1500.. (Answer is simply ny given square term(1600)..c paettern of his liking
Three co-ordinates of triangle was given.. we had too find type of triangle it is..
A square is cut from a circle and a circle is cut from that square..how much area is remaining ....
In equilateral triangle a circle is drawn. In that circle one square is drawn. Find the ratio of area of equilateral triangle to square?
Question on simple average speed..
Question on angle between hands of a clock...

Next 10 questions are technical

1. Int *p;

P=(int *p)malloc(100);

Wat is sizeof(p),sizeof(*p)

2. A question on find the worst case complexity of Quick Sort( ans :O(n2) )

3. Piggy Backing is For ?(Acknowledgement)

4. In POP operation of Microprocessor how it process the instruction

Ans: it pops the instruction and decrements the stack pointer

Where does Global,Local and static variables of a program lie?
3 questions on H/w ..that I could not solve....
1 question on Boolean expression(a simple one)

2 marks questions...

1 #define xyz abc*cd

#define abc 10

#define cd 10



Int k;




Ans: -80

2. Static variables don't change their value as they are stored in

a) stack b) data segment c) heap d) none

3. #pragma pack(1)

Struct a


Int a:4;

Int b:45;

Char c;


What is the size of struct if int is of four bytes .

Ans is 5

4. a question on bitwise operator

5.int i=90;

Char *p;

P=(char *)&i ;


Pointer is I ncremented by 2,1,4 or none of these

6.#define scanf "%s is string"




Ans; %s is string is string

7 char str={"neha");

printf("hello \n" %s" \n",str);

output : ?

8 One question on page table. we had to find page size

9 . One question on memory acces time of a program with given hit ratio and given cache access time..( revise the formula from OS)

10. Find the number of 1's in the following expression

(3*4096 + 16*1024+ 3)

11. 1 question on recursion

int i=89;

Int *p;

Char *t;


T=(char *)&I;

If( *p==*t)




Tell the o/p.

12. Again 2 question to find output of a c program
Placement Papers / TISL Placement Paper
Aug 28, 2008, 12:17 AM
TISL -----------> PAPER MODEL
Two parts.
Part A: aptitude (100 Que) 100 marks
Part B: comp knowledge test

Q9). what will be the result of executing following program
char *x="new";
char *y="dictonary";
char *t;
void swap (char * , char *);
swap (x,y);
printf("(%s, %s)",x,y);

char *t;
printf("-(%s, %s)",x,y);
void swap (char *x,char *y)
char *t;

e).None of the above
(Ans will be b or e) check

Q10).If a directory contains public files (can be valied and used
by any one ) which should not be altered ,the most liberal
permissions that can be given to the directory is
e)None of the above
(Ans a)

11) what would the following program results in
char p[]="string";
char t;
int i,j;
a)will print:string
b)will not print anything since p will be pointing to a null string
c)will print:gnirtS
d)will result in a complication error
e)will print invallid characters(junk)
(Ans will be b ) check

12) After the following command is executed
$ ln old new
a listing is performed with the following output
$ ls -li

total 3
15768 -rw-rw-rw- 2 you 29 Sep 27 12:07 old
15768 " " " " " " " " new
15274 " " 1 " 40 " " 09:34 veryold

which of the following is true
a)old and new have same i-node number,2
b) " " " " " " " , 15768
c)old and new have nothing yo do with each other
d)very old and new are linked
e)very old and old are linked
(Ans is b)

13) What will be the result of executing the following statement
int i=10;
printf("%d %d %d",i,++i,i++);
a).10 11 12
b).12 11 10
c).10 11 11
d).result is OS dependent
e).result is compiler dependent
(Ans is e)

14) What does extern means in a function declaration
a)the funct has global scope
b)the funct need not be defined\
c)nothing really
d)the funct has local scope only to the file it is defined in
e)none of the above
(Ans will be c)

15) What will be result of the following program
void f(int,int);
int i=10;
void f(int i,int j)
e)none of the above
(Ans is e)

16). MS windows 3.1 is a
a)operating system
c)Programing language
(Ans will be b)

17).MS Windows 3.1 supports which type of multi-tasking?
(Ans )

18)The command ......ln /bin/mail /usr/you/bin/m
a)will not be executed because you are linking files
across different file systems
b)results ln /bin/main being the same file as /usr/you/bin/m
c)results in 2 links to the file mail
d) " " " " m
(Ans will be b)

19)In a standerd directory lay out ,/etc is the directory where
a) basic programs such as who and ed reside
b) - - - - - - -
c)various administrative files such as password file reside
d) - - - - - - -
e) - - - - - -
(Ans is c)

20) The command echo *
a) echoes all files in the current directory
b) - - - - -
(Ans is a)

21)What will be the result of the following segment of the program
char *s="hello world";
int i=7;
a)syntax error
b)hello w
(Ans is b)

22) What will be the result of the following program
int a,b;
printf("enter two numbers :");
a)- - - - -
b) - --
c) will generate run time error /core dump
(Ans is c)

23) What is the size of 'q'in the following program?
int x;
char y;
struct {
char x;
char y;
int xy;}p;
(Ans is b why because no of bytes for int =4 given in instructions)

24) Which message is displayed when a window is destroyed
(Ans is b)

25)Send Message and postmessage are
a)send message puts the message in the message queue and results,
postmessage processes the message immediately
b)Sendmessage processes the message immediately,postmessage puts
the message in the queue and returns
c) Both put the message in the message queue and returns
d) Both process the message immediately
e) None of the above
(Ans will be b check)

26) Which of the following message is used to limit the size
of teh Window
c)- - - -
d)- -- - -
(Ans is a)

27)until who|grep mary
sleep 60
a) is syntactically incorrect
b) waits 60 seconds irrespective of Mary being logged in or not
c) waits until Marry is logged in
d)waits till Mary exited
(Ans is c)

28)The UNIX system call that transforms an executable binary file into
a process is
e)All of the above
(Ans will be d check)

29)Which of the following is true about fork()
a)- - - - -
b)causes the creation of a new process ,the CHILD process
with a new process ID
(Ans is b)

30) What do the following variable names represents?
sort register
volatile default
a)- - - -
b ) - - - -
c)all the above are keywords
(Ans is c)

31)What will be the result of the following program
char *x="String";
char y[] = "add";
char *z;
z=(char *) malloc(sizeof(x)+sizeof(y)=1);
a)Add+string=Add string
b)syntax error during compilation
c)run time error/core dump
(Ans will be e consider cap&small leters)

32)What does the following expression means
d)an arrey of n pointers to function returning pointers to
functions returning pointers to characters
(ANS IS d)

33)Which of the following is not a DDL object
(Ans ic e)

34) Which of the following message is used to initialize the
contents of a dialog
(Ans will be d)

35)Interprocess communication in UNIX can be achieved using
d)Shared Memory
e)All of the above
(Ans is e)

36) Which of the following is true
a)UNIX is a time sharing multi-user OS
b)UNIX has a device independent file system
c)UNIX is full duplex
d)UNIX has command interpreter
e)All of the above
(Ans is e)

Q). PS1 pwd
export PS1 results in
a). your primary prompt being your current directory
b). " " and secondary prompts being the current dir
c). " " prompt being your home dir
d). " " and secondary prompts being the home dir
e). None of the above.

Q). If you type in the command
nohup sort employees > list 2 > error out &
and log off ,the next time you log in . the output
will be
a). in a file called list and the error will de typed in
a file error out
b). there will be no file called list or error out
c). error will be logged in a file called list and o/p
will be in error out
d). you will not be allowed to log in
e). none of the above

Q). In UNIX a files i-node
a)is a data structure that defines all specifications
of a file like the file size ,number of lines to a
file ,permissions etc.
c). - - - --
d). _ _ _
( ans is ---------(a) )

Q). The UNIX shell is....
a).does not come with the rest of the system
b).forms the interface between the user and the kernal
c)-- -- ---
d) - - - -
e) none
(ans is (b) )

Q).enum number { a=-1, b= 4,c,d,e}
what is the value of e ?
(ans is 7 ) check again

Q).The very first process created by the kernal that runs
till the kernal process is haltes is
(Ans is a)

Q) Result of the following program is
int i=0;
case 0:i+=5;
case 1:i+=2;
case 5:i+=5;
default i+=4;
e)syntax error
(Ans is d )

Q) What is the result
char c=-64;
int i=-32
unsigned int u =-16;

(Ans is c)


Missing leter
1).eefgghii- (Ans j)
3)defdefghi- (Ans g)
4)cdexyzfghxyz-(Ans i)
5)defdegde- (h)
6)abczabcyabc- (x)
7)fgbhibjkb- (l)
- - - - - (Ans is r)
9)aarbsctarb- (s)
10)bccdeefg- (g)
11)efhikl- (n)
12)abccdeffg- (h)
13amnbopc- (q)
14)tttssrqqqp- (p)
15)ddffhhjj- (l)
16)mnmnklopopkl- (q)
17)cddeeefff- (f)
18)gfed- (c)
19)dfhjl- (n)
20)abcijdefij (g)
21)efgefghefghi- (e)
22)bcbdedfgfhi- (h)
23)aababccdc- (d)
24)aibcidef- (i)
25)cehl- (q)
26)abdehimn- (s) check again
27)becfdge- (h)
28)agbhc- (i)
29)adhko- (r)
30)efghjklno- (q)
31)aedhg- (k)
32aeibf- (j)
33)zdwgt- (J)
34)zeyijxg- ()find
35)cqreuvg- (y)
36)ksjtiuh- (v)
37)rsjtuhvw- (f)
38)ieajfbk- (g)
39)hebifej- (g)
40)hjlmiel- (h)

TOTAL 60 QUE'S 25-PROBLEMS & 35 FIGURES(figure series,we
have to find next coming figure)


1) A boy multiplied a number with 10 and got 100,insted of
dividing it . If he devided it what would be the answer?
(Ans is 1)

2)If 12 shell cup board requires 18ft of wall space then
30 " " " " how much wall space?
(Ans is 45)

3)The average salary of three employee is 95Rs.per week.
If one employee earns 115 and other earns 65 rupees.
how much will third be earn?
(Ans is 105Rs)

4)A company instaled 36 punching machines at the begining of
the year.In the spring they instaled 9 additional m/c's
and then discontinued 18 in the fall.How many were still
installed at the end of the year?
(Ans is 9)check

5)During a given week a programmer spend 1/4 of his time
preparing charts,3/8 of his time for coding,rest of his time
for debugging the programs.If he had 48 hrs during the week
how many hours did he spend debugging the program.
(Ans is 18hrs)

6)A 16 story building has 12000ft on each floor. Company A
rents 7 floors and company B rents 4 floors. What is the
number of square feet of unrented floor space?
(Ans is 60000 sqft)

7)A man owns 2/3 of a computer service buroue business and
sells 3/4 of his share for $75000.What is the value of the
(Ans is 150,000)

CoolA computer printer produces 176400 lines in a given day.
If the printer was in operation for 7hrs during the day
how many lines did it print per minute?
(Ans is 420)

9)From its total income a company spent $20000 for advertising
half of the remainder on salaries and had $6000 left.What
was the total income?
(Ans is $32000)

10)In a certain company 20% of the men and 40% of the women
attended the annual company picnic.If 35% of all the emplo-
yees are men .What % of all the employee went to the picnic?
(Ans is 33%)

11)The dimensions of certain IBM m/c are 48"*30". If the
size of the m/c is increased proportionally until the
sum of its dimensions equals to 156".What will be the
increase in the shortest side?
(Ans is 30)

12)If a card punch operator can process 80 cards in half an hour
How many cards can this process in 7hr30min?
(Ans is 1200)

13)In a computer tape library there are two racks with 40 tapes
per rack.In a given day 30 tapes are in use . What fraction
remains in the rack?
(Ans is 5/
Sample Test Paper
Section A: Aptitude

0.03 of 0.05 is what
a. 15%
b. .15%
c. 0.015%
d. 0.0015%

x<y,y<z and z>w which of the follwing is always true
a. x<w
b. y<w
c. x>w
d. y>w

12 men can do a job in 4 hours .in wat time the same job can be done by 15 men ( I did not do)
a. 3 hrs
b. 3 hrs 24 min
c. 2 hrs
d. 3 hrs 30 min

30 socks r there in a basket.60% are red and rest are blue. How many draws should be taken from the basket to make sure that u have 2 blue and 1 red
a. 2
b. 3
c. 14
d. 20

When operator * is applied to a number the result is 10 subtracted from the twice of the original number ,so wat is *(*9)

A husband and wife has 6 sons and each has 5 children each, How many are there in the family altogether

3x-2y=8 so what is 4y-6x
a. -16
b. 16
c. data not sufficient

From chennai to trichy it is 250 miles and from Chennai to pondicherry it is 120 miles.wat percentage of mile from Chennai to trichy is Chennai to pondi
a. 34
b. 20
c. 36

City B is 8 miles east of City A.City C is 6 miles north of City B. City D is 16 miles east of city C. City E is north of City D by 12 miles .what is the shortest distance from City A to City E

An employer pays X,Y,Z a weekly wage of total 610. X gets 120% of Y, and X gets 80% of Z wat is the weekly wage of X I think answer is 200.

There are 50 employees of a company .21 were in training for both economics and science training.11 were in 2 different training programs .find how many of them do not attend any training programfew questions were given with some relationship like:
1 head is to cap as finger is to

In a certain code language RANGER was written as REGNAR .with the same code how is TABLE written Elbat(reverse the word)

In a certain code if READ is written as SEADR then how is SING written with that code SINGS

If kanchan is son of Sunil's son's son then how is Sunil related to Kanchan- grandson

Find the odd one out
a. Caution
b. Tresspasers will b prosecuted
c. Only one way
d. Keep left

One more odd man out was asked few questions on profit and loss were asked


A sorting program is given .You need to print the output of every outer 'for' loop.
int n=8,I,j,k;
int a[7]={44,55,42,12,6,94,67};

The precedence of operators are given, you have to find the value highest :+ followed by -,*,/ parentheses r given higher precedence to operators unary operator '-' is always written within parentheses association is from right to left

Questions were given like L-Value R-Value
a) z[I+2]

Assume the following:
a. A tape drive can store 4096 bytes/millimeter
b. Forgot
c. A IRG is necessary and the length is 2 millimeter
Answer the following question:
For storing 20MB how many millimeters of tape is required
What is the storage capacity if the tape is 10000meters long
For a infinite storage how many IRGs are required in a tape that stores 1 GB of data.

The following program is to calculate the number of lines, number of words, number of characters from file. You got to complete the C program (15 marks)

# define IN 1
# define OUT ------
int nc=nw=nl= ------,state= ------.c;
++ ----;
if (c= = '\n')
++ ----;
if(c = = ' ' || c = = '\n' || c= ='\t')
state= ----;
elseif(state = ----)
state= -----;
++ -----;
Here are some points that can help MBA's grow in their life and help them become wiser.

1. Join or Work for some spiritual organizations, like ISKON, Ramkrishna Mission, Local Church Community, Local Muslim Community, Local Jain community, Local Sindhi community, Local Gurudwara community, Local Jewish Community, Local Buddhist Community, Shri Shri Ravishankar, Vipassyana, community, or of your own choice irrespective of cast, creed, dogmas, Sampraday, and religion. Go to Temple, Gurudwara, Masjid, Mandir, Synagogue either regularly or at least once a weak. Work on holidays for some cultural or spiritual event. E.g. some Puja, Havan, Ide, Christmas, Mahavir Jayanti, Jhulelal Jayanti/ Birthday, and contribute and take part. I saw my friend been picked up by one MNC General Manager, as he could find devotion to work in my friend. He was B.Tech. from BITS Pilani and .....he is in the same job since he joined and he commutes from USA to India like we go to Grocery shop from house every day. He is software specialist. He was picked up by the MNC before Campus interview in the First Year itself. In fact my friend was always busy in studies sports, co-curricular activities, every place he went. He wanted experience of life and he always thinks that by participation in multiple activities he gets that.

2. Join Rotary, Lions, Greencity, Jaycees, and such top clubs and take part in their activities. After few months the leadership and job will come to you. One of my other friends was lifted from one world class organization while delivering lecture on Paradigm shift.

3. Join your Alumni of colleges; there is always a whole amount of understanding in one particular school or college as they know the environment over there. They help each other. One of my friends was lifted from SAP course and he is always wandering around the globe on implementing SAP projects.

4. Join functions of your relatives. Though many times relatives find negatives in you, but, when it comes to trust, relatives always put faith and trust in relatives. At least twenty two of my relatives and friends around my locality were "college lifted" in the final year itself when there was no trend of campus placement.

5. Go to National, International Conferences, Seminars, Tech Fairs, Computer Fairs, Gatherings, Education Fairs, Agro-business Fairs, and other fairs and 'Take Active Part' in Events and Functions. Your work is noticed by one and all. At least the experience you gain is noted by seniors, they have keen eyes and they know who you are and what your interests are and what you do and can do. My distant brother was selected by one organization like that now he is Vice-President of one of the IT companies in India.

6. Take active part in Research Activities with your colleagues, peers, subordinates, seniors, students, staff, relatives, friends, at par with cut to cut. Generate ideas and put those thoughts before seniors and in the conferences. Represent yourself on big dais. Organizations always, like people putting their name on big platforms.

7. Make your SWOT Analysis. If you want to know how to do it and how to succeed please go to my Blog. Especially read how to do it and why to do it. My students find it very interesting and are excelling in their work as well as in life.

8. Never underestimate any job/ work, any opportunity to work in different environment, different and contrasting cultures, almost juxtapose working situations, working with negativity or / and opposing personalities. The major reason being bogging down for some time, or making some adjustment, teaches you how to put you in the high trajectory even if you are down but not-out. For example, I always go to office by my office bus, as it saves my time and as I reach on time. My colleagues have status and esteem attached to them in my last organization and hence could not do that as they wanted to keep distance with other colleagues and students and staff so as to maintain status. Man time is more important than anything else. Another advantage is like this. In the bus along with my students, we generated three research papers and ideas for putting papers in the conferences. With few students developed business plan that won the first prize in the national level event. All my students who worked on such Research and Business Plans like crazy Researchers are now working in Top Three Information Technology Organizations of India. The networking developed was so great that they are still in touch with each others and are producing miracles for the organizations they joined. At the end of the day, not where you spoiled your cloths is counted, but what you did.

9. Network with everybody essentially at the humane level. Don't underestimate what other professionals or non-professionals say. E.g. Some times what driver says or pan shop owner says or Grocery shop owner says can also become important as they have their experience of life and are in business due to networking only. Even automobile mechanics, electricity fitters, contractors, housing agents, Insurance agents, sports players, celebrities, childhood friends, and childhood enemies come to help. Yes, one of my friends is working with his childhood enemy. Now they laugh at that childhood enmity.

10. One of my friends used to go for the buying grocery, vegetables, household needs every week end. One more top guy from top notch organization noticed it. He was GM and he also liked to go to buy green vegetables in that vegetable market. Down the line my friend was picked up for having down to earth personality.

11. Never, Never, Never, underestimate Mother, wife, sister, brother, Father, relatives, neighbor, yourself, your young brother/ sister, even children. One of my friend got job as he helped his sister's friend in getting some nominal stuff and he improved his networking later with her father. That girl child wanted a chocolate and my friend helped that millionaire getting all important chocolate for his child in the traffic jam. The friend was on the Bike and that child was crying in the Merc...

12. Orkut, Yahoogroups, MSN groups, Hi5, college groups, alumni groups, social groups, community groups, religious groups, management groups, sports groups, like minded groups, conferences in your field, government conferences, to name a few are possibilities. People have helped across the boundaries, across cultures, across religions, and in extreme conditions and situations. E.g. During 9/11 you will find a case when a Palestine boy was lifted and saved by a person from Israel, a Pakistan citizen helped Indian, an Indian helped Pakistani, Russian helped American, American helped Russian, .... Thus, human relations and interpersonal excellence and belonging-ness always have brought miracles in the world.

13. Remember the most famous poem in UK in medieval age. "I envy nobody, no not I and nobody envies me". "The miller of the dee" who happens to be the Hero in the Poem, believed that there is absolutely no competition in this world, everybody gets his share once he reaches the Wisdom of achieving that particular pinnacle position. Hence, ethics, values, honesty, truthfulness matters in this transparent and hyper communication explosive world.

14. Join some Self Help Groups (SHG) or Non Governmental Organizations (NGO) like CRY, SEWA, which help orphan children, poor and needy or to physically challenged people in their various activities. Know how good conditions you are placed in as compared to them. The organizations of repute like Green Peace, Salvation Army, Health Service Department of some Missionaries, or even you may join Government's some task force, and do the job/ work. The exposure and contacts you develop is great. Many have developed contacts beyond getting job.

15. Join some Political Party and take part in their activities. One of my friends Dinesh did this. He is sticking to one party and one man. He has become now treasurer of one big politician. Consistency matters. Follow their ideology. It could be Indian National Congress, CPM, BJP, SP, BSP, TDP, AIADMK, DMK, Shiv Sena, or any party to which suites your ideology. I hope you know how they have contacts and how they all help each other. In fact I have seen people from different parties helping each other AFTER the WAR called ELECTION. They know their ideology is different but at the end of the day all are human beings and needs and wants of all the human beings are similar.

16. Join Professional Group. If you are engineer then join The Institution of Engineers (India), SAE, etc. If you are Management Graduate join AIMA, AMA, etc. If you have Commerce, Arts, background join some organization of your choice. Taking parts in Event and professional activities develop solid contacts. In fact working with them should start in the student age in the college itself. It exposes you to future of you work and life. Many of my friends and I had been part of the Institution of Engineers (India) since our second year of graduation. Later we became member.

17. Take part in local and domestic festivals. Lokmanya Tilak and Mahatma Gandhiji literally moved the world through these activities. Ganesh Puja, Durga Puja, Pongal, Dasera, Diwali/ Deepawali, other village festivals. Take part in the most major festival of local communities. E.g. In Nagpur Shobhayatra of Ram on the Lord Ram's birthday is the biggest festival next only to Diwali and Dasera. People develop their own buggies and send the message. One million crowd watches that yatra. If you are in Saudi join Id festival, if you are in USA, UK take full devoted part in Christmas, if you are Sindhi take part in Jhulelal festival, if you are ..... thus, stick to your community and develop with you others as well. LokmanyaTilak literally moved Maharashtra. Gandhiji moved the nation. Festivals are great contact builders.

18. Join your own community and bring others to the world map.

19. Call friends to your birthday and go to their, but decide the limitations and your aims in life while you do that.

20. Go to trip together with likeminded people. One of my friends had hobby of watching stars in the night, he had spent his pocket money in buying telescope and he used to go alone. Later one group was formed by one Astro-physics Professor in Nagpur called Kutuhal. My friend joined that group. Now he is working in USA on Astro-Physics project of his interest.
How to drive away your nervousness during interview

An interview is a conversation between two or more people (the interviewer and the interviewee) where questions are asked by the interviewer to obtain information from the interviewee. Interviews can be divided into two rough types, interviews of assessment and interviews for information.

It is common that you all will be nervous at the time of interview though you have probably spent a great deal of time preparing.

However, you should let your practice and preparation become a disadvantage.

Once the interview begins, we must focus on interacting effectively with the interviewer. If we have prepared adequately for the interview, our conduct and responses should effortlessly convey to the interviewer the image we want to project.

It's important for us to know that the interviewer's decision about whether or not we will be invited back for an additional interview which will probably be influenced by your attitude and personality as much as by your qualifications. So although preparation is important, our performance during an interview can make things even better. We should always maintain a smile during the time of interview.

Here are some of the tips to overcome nervousness during the interview.

Get ready:

Collect some information about the company through its website or through its brochure. Obviously. If you have a presentation then study your notes and what you are about to say carefully before stepping up on stage. up in meeting. If you have a job interview, think about what they may ask you and figure out some good answers. Doing this carefully and meticulously can remove a lot of nervousness. It may not always be fun. But being well prepared can be helpful not only to remove nervousness but also to face the presentation or get the job.

Question yourself: What is the worst that could happen?

What is really the worst that could happen? How will it affect you in the actual scene? In many cases you will find that the answer boils downhill, not really that much. It's easy to get excessively wrapped up in what is about to happen and blow up the event and possible consequences in your mind until it seems like it's a matter of life and death. It seldom is. Asking a few simple questions can put things into a healthier perspective and calm you down.

Take 15 abdomen breaths.

Stomach breathing is a wonderful way to defeat negative feelings and visualizations and return to the present moment. Just taking a few dozen abdomen breaths can change nervous and shallow breathing into a calm and strong alternative. It's quite remarkable how quickly this can change how you feel. Here's how you go about it:

* Sit straight in a peaceful position with your legs away from each other

* Put your hands on your stomach. Using your stomach inhale slowly through your nose. If you are doing it right your stomach will expand and you'll feel it with your hands.

* Exhale slowly through your nose and do it with some force so you feel your stomach pull slightly inwards towards your spine.

* Breathe in and out 30 times. Take slow and deep breaths.

* After you have taken 30 breaths and focused on counting them you should not only feel more relaxed and centred. Your body will also be able to continue breathing in this manner without you focusing on it. And that's it. Continue with your normal day.

Yoga practice:

Here is another yoga practice to bring down your nervousness during the interview. Here's how you go about it.

Close the left nose with left thumb inhale and then exhale.

Close the right nose with right thumb inhale and then exhale.

Do it for 20 times, if possible Continue with your normal day.

Arrive Early

Arrive 20-30 minutes before your meeting is expected to begin. This will help give you a chance to get a small sense of the company's environment before your interview begins and will also allow you some time to become better adapt with your new surroundings, which hopefully will promote more of a relaxed feeling.

Begin With a Smile

A smile relaxes both you and the audience. It helps to chase away nervousness. Showing a smile in your face hides your nervousness. When you smile, you look more relaxed and confident, and when you are confident, people are more inclined to believe what you say.

Dress professionally:

Appropriate dressing is very important. A well dressed and groomed appearance can do wonders for that first impression. Keep yourself fit in your dressing. Now is not exactly the time to make a fashion statement so a tastefully chosen professional outfit, with suitable accessories like a hand-bag or brief case should be fine. Make yourself comfortable in the dressing.

Create in your mind:

Much of our time is spent habitually visualizing what may go wrong in a future situation. This may increase your nervousness.. It can also give you the results you imagined - or feared - through self-fulfilling prediction If you think you will fail, then you are making it a whole lot harder for yourself to succeed.

Imagining in an optimistic way is definitely a more useful and pleasant way to spend some time with your imagination. Now, you may think that visualizing this way is just improbable but seeing in a pessimistic way is just as improbable Either way, you are imagining what may happen in a possible future scenario. Doing it in a negative way may just feel more realistic because that's what people around you are doing or because It's what you've been doing every day for the last few years.

Here are some handy instructions for when you, for instance, have an upcoming meeting:

Visualize how great the events will unfold - see and hear it - and also how great will you feel at this meeting.
See yourself smiling, being positive, open and having a great time.
See the excellent outcome in your mind. Then release by visualizing that it has already happened, that the meeting is over with the desired result.
This is surprisingly effective and will get you into a good and relaxed mood before even stepping into the first, second or twentieth meeting.
Recall natural sceneries and rejoice yourself
The above solutions are the easier ones. The suggestions below are the ones you need more time to incorporate. It may take weeks, months or even years. Over time you can gradually make these ideas stronger parts of your life. And they can make you feel less and less nervous in any situation.

Comprehend that people don't care that much about what you do.

One big source of nervousness is focusing too much on what people will think of you. And thinking that their criticism is always about you.

But people don't think that much about what you do. You keep much of your attention from day to day on your problems, challenges and triumphs. And that's exactly what the next guy/girl is doing too.

In general, people keep much of their attention on their own challenges and problems. And their criticism is often about something negative in their life rather than about something you did. So don't worry too much about it. Now, it's very easy to fall back into a behaviour where you feel needy and wonder what people may think about you and what you do. But by working on this you can, step by step and over time, become less and less worried or bothered by what people might think. This allows you more inner freedom to do and try what you want since you're not feeling trapped in box of other people's opinions.

A firm handshake:

Give a firm handshake to the interviewer the moment you enter the hall. This indicates your confidence level and personality in total. The handshakes will push off your nervousness. When shaking hands, match the pressure of their handshake. Do not be shamble or unusual with the way you shake hands. Wait a moment and smile at the interviewer after meeting them.

Good eye contact:

Maintain a good eye contact with the interviewer. It is a form of nonverbal communication known as oculesics and has a large influence on social behavior. It shows the personal involvement and creates an intimate bond between the interviewer and interviewee. Keeping too much eye-contact might crawl people out. Giving no eye-contact might make you seem insecure. If you are not used to keeping eye-contact it might feel a little hard or scary in the beginning but keep working on it and you'll get used to it.

Don't touch your face

Avoid touching your face. Don't shake your shoulders and hands. It might makes you seem nervous and can be disturbing for the listeners or the people in the conversation.

Stay in the present moment.

This one ties into the one about belly breathing. When you take those deep, powerful breaths and focus on doing that your mind seems to silence. Your projections of what may happen at the meeting or job interview die out. Nervousness comes from these negative projections of what may happen sometime in the future. Or from what happened in the past, perhaps from the last time you had a meeting or an interview. When you instead focus your attention on what's happening now, now and... now the nervousness dies out too. Another way to stay in - or return to - the present moment is to just pay attention to what is happening right now. Just focus on the scene and the sounds right in front of you. Don't think about the reports you have finish before 5 o'clock, the meeting tomorrow or what you want for dinner. Just pay attention to the present moment and nothing else for a few moments. Make it a habit and try to expand the time you can spend in the present moment before your thoughts drift away again.

Don't swallow the answer:

While giving the answer for the questions don't swallow the last word of your sentence. This brings down the confidence level and indicates that you are not confident about your answer.


Many people freeze, stammer, or panic when they are asked a question that they don't know the answer to. If you don't know the answer, the best course of action to take is to admit it! Tell the host you can try to find out the answer later. Lying or attempting to make up an answer only serves to make you and the host uncomfortable.Accept your innocence. Don't give wrong answer and get caught. Don't nod your head too much which indicates that you are hiding your tension through your body language.


Give valid answer for the questions asked by the interviewer and there may be some stressful questions (a series of harsh, rapid fire questions intended to upset the applicants)and that questions are to check your emotions ,during that time don't be very emotional and answer with a cool mind.

Avoid beverages:

On the morning of your interview, try to avoid caffeine as much as possible. Most of the people believe that it helps them to relax, but a lot of caffeine researchers claim that it can increase tension levels. Also, when attempting to bar caffeine from your diet on the morning of your interview make sure to keep in mind that coffee isn't the only culprit behind increasing nervousness or agitation but chocolate, tea and cola can also play a significant role because they also contain caffeine.

Practise, practise, practise.

Practice will also help alleviate nervousness. Obviously it's best to work on mock interviews with a media coach who will offer subjective, professional feedback.The more you practise, take action and put yourself in situations that may make you nervous the more confident you become. You have been there before; you know pretty much what will happen. So you feel more and more comfortable and less nervous.
Impact of Globalization on BPO Industry in India


India has enormous opportunities emerging from globalization and consequent lowering of tariff barriers. Information Technology has given India formidable brand equity in the global markets. Indian BPO companies have a unique distinction of providing efficient business solutions with cost and quality as an advantage by using state of art technology. Through joint efforts of Government and the Industry, software development and IT enabled services have emerged as niche opportunities for India in the global context. The Government has been making continuous efforts to make India a front-runner in the age of Information revolution. India today has the advantages of skilled manpower base, active and healthy competition amongst states in attracting investment in infrastructure as well as framing IT applications in areas such as e-governance, e-learning, e-commerce, entrepreneurship, software exports growth and a large potential in the domestic market. Information Technology Act dealing with Cyber Security, Cyber Crime and other information security related legal aspects is in place. As a result of technological convergence at the infrastructure, services and industry level; there has been a tremendous up-surge in new product / service industries.

Definition - BPO

Business process outsourcing (BPO) is the leveraging of technology vendors to provide and manage a company's critical and/or non-critical enterprise applications. Through the business transformation process of service-oriented transformation, which leverages the technologies and standards of service-oriented architecture, companies can increasingly leverage third party companies that act as business service providers. Business process outsourcing can use off-shore resources, but is not required.

Business process outsourcing (BPO) is the act of giving a third-party the responsibility of running what would otherwise be an internal system or service.

Importance of Outsourcing

"Outsourcing system allows companies to contract for services that are not within the scope of their expertise, so that they can focus their time, money and energy on their core competencies instead of wasting valuable resources trying to gain Understanding of areas that are somebody else's expertise".
Campbell and K.S.Luchs in Core Competency Based Strategy.

SWOT analysis on Indian ITES sector


Highly skilled, English-speaking workforce
Abundant manpower
Cheaper workforce than their Western counterparts According to Nasscom, The wage difference is as high as 70-80 percent when compared to their Western parts.
Lower attrition rates than in the West.
Dedicated workforce aiming at making a long-term career in the field
Round-the-clock advantage for Western companies due to the huge time difference.
Lower response time with efficient and effective service
Operational excellence
Conducive business environment

Recent months have seen a rise in the level of attrition rates among outsourcing workers who are quitting their jobs to pursue higher studies. Of late workers have shown a tendency not to pursue BPO as a full-time career.
The cost of telecom and network infrastructure is much higher in India than in the US.
Local infrastructure
Political influence

To work closely with associations like Nasscom to portray India as the most favoured BPO destination in the world.
India can be branded as a quality outsourcing destination.
$69 billion ITES business by 2010
$97.5 billion IT (consulting, software solutions) market by 2010

The anti-outsourcing legislation in the US state of New Jersey. Three more states in the United States are planning legislation against outsourcing Connecticut, Missouri and Wisconsin.
Workers in British Telecom have protested against outsourcing of work to Indian BPO companies.
Other BPO destinations such as China, Philippines and South Africa could have an edge on the cost factor.
Indian Market size estimates

The below table shows the off shore BPO revenue, Indian BPO revenue and the total market potential of the world BPO industry

Revenue \ Year

Offshore BPO Revenue

Indian BPO Revenue

Total BPO Market

CAGR in % 2002-07
Figures in $ million
Source: Gartner Dataquest

Gartner: $173 billion in 2007, of which $24.23 billion would be outsourced to offshore contractors

Indian Market size estimates of BPO

Nasscom has estimated that the Indian ITES industry will gross over $5.7 billion by 2005 (based on a conservative year-on-year growth of 65 percent by Nasscom).

Nasscom-McKinsey: In 1999 they estimated by 2008 it will be $17 billion but it has been revised to $21-24 billion by 2008. Indian can capture 25% of global BPO offshore market and 12% of the market for other services such as animation, content development and design services.

Gartner: $1 billion (2002), $1.2 billion (2003). $13.8 billion by 2007. Gartner does not incorporate animation, medical or other (legal) transcription services, GIS, market research, data search, research and development, network consultancy and other non-business processes in its estimates on the ITES market size and potential.

US jobs moving offshore:

The below table shows the number of jobs moving offshore from US

Sl. No
Number of U.S. Jobs Moving Offshore

Job Category





Life Sciences


Art, Design




Source: U.S Department of Labour and Forrester Research, Inc.
BPO News / Conversion from BPO to KPO
Aug 27, 2008, 11:45 PM
Conversion from BPO to KPO

While outsourcing is present in numerous business functions, including manufacturing, legal, financial and human resources, it is the term BPO (Business Process Outsourcing) that is largely in the news on a daily basis. India's capabilities in this area have been moving towards enhancing the nature of the work done. From mere data entry kind of work, the focus has shifted to transaction processing. Now, there is a nascent move towards knowledge process outsourcing (KPO).

Unlike in BPO where the focus is on executing standardized routine processes, KPO involves processes that demand advanced information search, analytical, interpretation and technical skills as well as some judgment and decision making. Examples of KPO functions are intellectual property or patent research, R&D in pharmaceuticals and biotechnology, data mining, database creation, and a range of analytical services such as equity research, competitive intelligence, industry reports and financial modeling. Many of these activities lend themselves to remote execution from anywhere.

Typical users of KPO services include market research and consulting firms, investment banks and financial services institutions, industry associations, media, publishing and database firms, and corporate planning departments of large Fortune 500 companies. Several global players such as McKinsey, Goldman Sachs, Reuters, IMS Health, Harris Interactive, Ipsos, Maritz, AC Nielsen, TN0S and the WPP group are already using India as a remote base.

The KPO Value Chain

Typically, the extent of off shoring is a function of the degree of e-enablement possible and the quality of the human capital required. Some activities such as paralegal and medical transcription require low quality human capital as compared to activities such as data mining and analysis, engineering design and e-learning. The latter are also highly amenable to IT enablement. Other services such as legal consulting, intellectual property research and strategic consulting require the highest level of human capital and are the least amenable to IT enablement.

A veritable gold mine

Companies in the KPO space thus need to make the transition from offering services that require low human capital quality and low IT enablement to those that require a high degree of human capital and IT enablement. The National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM) projects that the total global offshoring market opportunity by 2008 will touch $141 billion. Of this, data search, integration and management will account for $18 billion. Medical, legal content and associated services represent an opportunity of $2 billion. However, Scope e-Knowledge Center estimates that only 45-50 per cent (about $65-70 billion) of the total off-shoring opportunity is likely to be realized even by 2010. According to Scope, the global offshore BPO (non-IT) revenue in fiscal 2003 was close to $9 billion and this is expected to grow by about 35 per cent a year through 2008.

An obvious advantage of BPO is the immediate cost savings (over 30 per cent) and yet a steadfast focus on high quality standards. This also allows the in-house team (of the overseas client) to focus their expertise on more value-added work while delegating the lower-end work to more cost-effective resources. For India, it is a new job creator. It is estimated that the total number of jobs created so far as a result of outsourcing, primarily call centre operations, is about 180,000. Of these, the U.S. and the U.K. together have a share of over 86 per cent. By 2010, the share of non-call centre outsourcing is placed at 50 per cent of the total number of jobs created. One estimate places the KPO jobs alone at over a quarter of a million by then.

At the same time, companies abroad are skeptical about outsourcing high-end services for varied reasons such as data security, quality and professionalism in a remote location, political and regulatory climate.

Collaborative approach

Clearly, this is an evolutionary process and certain roadblocks that exist need to be taken care of. Companies need to adopt a collaborative approach to tackle such issues. For instance, Scope has addressed these issues by adopting a relationship-based model. In this model, concerns on quality and timeliness have been addressed by Scope through a process of pilots and phased transfer of work. Technology -- hardware and software -- is world class. International certifications such as ISO and BS7799 also help. Likewise, Service Level Agreements that are mutually fair have been put in place.

What helps the India case is the ready access to a large intellectual pool with expertise in areas such as research and analysis, not to mention reasonable English language skills (that need honing) and strong domain expertise.

But finally, it is the management that plays a vital role in enabling the smooth operationalisation of such remote knowledge partnerships.

There is tremendous potential in the KPO space. Only companies that have a strong pedigree, domain expertise, clear focus on the high-end space, a proactive solution orientation and a collaborative mindset will emerge as the winners.
Definitions and Importance of Industrial Segmentation:

A market segment is commonly defined as "a group of present or potential customers with some common characteristics which is relevant in explaining / predicting their response to a supplier's marketing stimuli". This definition originated by Wind and Cardozo in 1974. In another definition "segmentation is about identifying and targeting customer groups through their needs and wants, as well as determining which customers and needs to address and with what manner and intensity".

There are many other definitions with words of the same effect, most of which does not take into account the differences between companies within a specific segment. Every company wants to differentiate itself from competitors. Therefore, any marketing stimulus needs to be specific to a time and situation, and perhaps even to the target company.

This is also true in industrial markets. Despite the many changes, the underlying criteria remain the same, e.g. geography, culture, industry; SIC code, size, technology position, buying strategy, business models, etc. The challenge is in the patterns and combinations of these criteria, plus in the accelerated rate of change, which require more dynamic and flexible segmentation models.

Marketing stimuli is also known as the value proposition or the marketing mix. Broadly defined, it means the range of products and service plus the added value that a company offers to each of the defined segments. For eg. a segment consisting of very large and highly important customers may be offered lower, negotiated unit prices due to the high volume of business and 24-hour after sales service, while a segment containing a large number of mainly small customers will get no flexibility on price and only a 9 - 5 after sales service. The real picture is usually much more complex than depicted here.

So it can be said, market segmentation with the view to target organisations as customers is wrong. "Building a strategic relationship with the customer starts with a simple premise: marketing to individuals rather than accounts; focusing on the process of marketing to individuals. Since it is the individual [that makes the decision on the business], the emphasis needs to be on a market segment size of one; i.e. n = 1 or the individual". At any rate, "market segmentation, targeting and positioning are the three crucial elements in strategic marketing management [in order to] tailor our offering to particular needs and wants of certain groups". Consequently, "segmentation is one of the most important concepts in industrial markets. It is the basis whereby market analysis and deeper understanding of customers can be developed into an organisational response that yields sustainable competitive advantage.

That 'what' and 'why' of segmentation provides strong justification for its practice". These general introductions apply to all businesses including in industrial markets. Croft further explains that it was the advertising business that initially used "crude demographic variables" for segmentation purposes [in consumer marketing] such as age groups and the 'A B C1 ...' social grades.

However, "it is an inescapable fact that one of the main features of end-of-century marketing is fragmentation - of audiences, markets and media". This fragmentation argument is equally valid in B2B marketing. Although industries generally tend to consolidate through mergers and acquisitions as they mature, supposedly simplifying industry structures (eg.s are aviation, automobile, construction, engineering, pharmaceuticals, banking and oil & gas industries), there are many emerging industries that are in reality fragmented (e.g. IT, business services, environmental protection and banking).

Moreover, companies collaborate among themselves heavily even in consolidated industries. One eg. is the automobile industry. There is not one single car manufacturer in the world that does not collaborate with at least one other car manufacturer either on drive-train technology, platform design, assembly, marketing or some other discipline. This makes it highly challenging for suppliers to differentiate themselves according to the needs of any one particular customer or segment. Yet others propose a totally different method by emphasising on supply chain analysis and competitive advantage.

Segmentation Variables

Segmentation variables as "customer characteristics that elate to some important difference in customer response to marketing effort" & recommends the following three criteria:

i) Measurability, "otherwise the scheme will not be operational" according to Webster. While this would be an absolute ideal, its implementation can be next to impossible in some markets. The first barrier is, it often necessitates field research, which is expensive and time-consuming. Second, it is impossible to accurate strategic data on a large number of customers. Third, if gathered, the analysis of the data can be daunting task. These barriers lead most companies to use more qualitative and intuitive methods in measuring customer data, and more persuasive methods while selling, hoping to compensate for the gap of accurate data measurement.

ii) Substantiality, i.e. "the variable should be relevant to a substantial group of customers". The challenge here is finding the right size or balance. If the group gets too large, there is a risk of diluting effectiveness; and if the group becomes too small, the company will loose the benefits of economies of scale. Also, as Webster rightly states, there are often very large customers that provide a large portion of a suppliers business. These single customers as sometimes distinctive enough to justify constituting a segment on their own. This scenario is often observed in industries which are dominated by a small number of large companies, e.g. aircraft manufacturing, automotive, turbines, printing machines and paper machines.

iii) Operational relevance to marketing strategy. Segmentation should enable a company to offer the suitable operational offering to the chosen segment, e.g. faster delivery service, credit-card payment facility, 24-hour technical service, etc. This can only be applied by companies with sufficient operational resources. For eg., just-in-time delivery requires highly efficient and sizeable logistics operations, whereas supply-on-demand would need large inventories, tying down the supplier's capital. Combining the two within the same company - e.g. for two different segments - would stretch the company's resources.

Nevertheless, academics as well as practitioners use various segmentation principles and models in their attempt to bring some sort of structure. Here, we discuss a few of the most common approaches:

A Generic Principle

One of the recommended approaches in segmentation is for a company to decide whether it wants to have a limited number of products offered too many segments or many products offered to a limited number of segments. Businesses are encouraged not to offer many product lines to many segments, as this would dilute their focus and stretch their resources too much. Yet this happens relatively often in practice, which hints to the question, to what extent the recommended models realistic.

The advantage in attempting the above approach is that although it may nor work at all times, it is a force for as much focus as practicable. The one-to-many model ensures - in theory - that a business keeps its focus sharp and makes use of economies of scale at the supply end of the chain. In "kills many birds with one stone".

The problem with the many-to-many model is that it really does stretch a company's resources too thin as focus is lost. One of the major reasons for the current financial problems of the world's largest carmaker, General Motors, is that it has tried to be everything to everybody, launching model after model with no clear segmenting, targeting or branding strategy.

Two-Stage Market Segmentation

Industrial market segmentation based on broad two-step classifications of macro-segmentation and micro-segmentation. This model is one the most common methods applied in industrial markets today. It is sometimes extended into more complex models to include multi-step and three- and four-dimensional models.

Macro-segmentation centres on the characteristics of the buying organisation, thus dividing the market by:

- Company / organisation size: one of the most practical and easily identifiable criteria, it can also be good rough indicator of the potential business for a company. However, it needs to be combined with other factors to draw a realistic picture.

- Geographic location is equally as feasible as company size. It tells a company a lot about culture and communication requirements. For eg. A company would adapt a different bidding strategy with an Asian company than an American customer. Geographic location also relates to culture, language and business attitudes. For eg., Middle Eastern, European, North American, South American and Asian companies will all have different sets of business standards and communication requirements.

- SIC core (standard industry classification), which originated in the US, can be a good indicator for application-based segmentation. However it is based only on relatively standard and basic industries, and product or service classifications such as sheet metal production, springs manufacturing, construction machinery, legal services, cinema's etc. Many industries that use a number of different technologies or have innovative products are classified under the 'other' category, which does not bring much benefit if these form the customer base. Eg.s are access control equipment, thermal spray coatings and uninterruptible power supply systems, none of which have been classified under the SIC.

- Purchasing situation, new task, modified re-buy or straight re-buy. This is another relatively theoretical and unused criterion in real life. As a result of increased competition and globalisation in most established industries, companies tend to find focus in a small number of markets, get to know the market well and establish long-term relationship with customers. The general belief is, it is cheaper to keep an existing customer than to find a new one. When this happens, the purchase criteria are more based on relationship, trust, technology and overall cost of purchase, which dilutes the importance of this criterion.

- Decision-making stage. This criterion can only apply to newcomers. In cases of long-term relationship, which is usually the objective of most industrial businesses, the qualified supplier is normally aware of the purchase requirement, i.e. they always get into the bidding process right at the beginning. & "with increasing turbulence in the marketplace, it is clear that firms have to move away from transaction-oriented marketing strategies and move towards relationship-oriented marketing for enhanced performance".

- Benefit segmentation: The product's economic value to the customer, which is one of the more helpful criteria in some industries. It "recognizes that customers buy the same products for different reasons, and place different values on particular product features. For eg. The access control industry markets the same products for two different value sets: Banks, factories and airports install them for security reasons, i.e. to protect their assets against. However, sports stadiums, concert arenas and the London Underground installs similar equipment in order to generate revenue and/or cut costs by eliminating manual ticket-handling.

- Type of institution: banks would require designer furniture for their customers while government departments would suffice with functional and durable sets. Hospitals would require higher hygiene criteria while buying office equipment than utilities. And airport terminals would need different degrees of access control and security monitoring than shopping centres. However, type of buying institution and the decision-making stage can only work on paper. As institutional buyers cut procurement costs, they are forced to reduce the number of suppliers, with whom they develop long-term relationships. This makes the buying institution already a highly experienced one and the suppliers are normally involved at the beginning of the decision-making process. This eliminates the need to apply these two items as segmentation criteria.

- Customers' business potential assuming supply can be guaranteed and prices are acceptable by a particular segment. For eg., 'global accounts' would buy high quantities and are prepared to sign long-term agreements; 'key accounts' medium-sized regional customers that can be the source of 30% of a company's revenue as long as competitive offering is in place for them; 'direct accounts' form many thousands of small companies that buy mainly ob price but in return are willing to forego service.

- Purchasing strategies, global vs. local decision-making structure, decision-making power of purchasing officers vs. engineers or technical specifies.

- Supply Chain Position: A customer' business model affects where and how they buy. If he pursues a cost leadership strategy, then the company is more likely to be committed to high-volume manufacturing, thus requiring high-volume purchasing. To the supplier, this means constant price pressure and precise delivery but relatively long-term business security, e.g. in the commodities markets. But if the company follows a differentiation strategy, then it is bound to offer customised products and services to its customers. This would necessitate specialised high-quality products from the supplier, which are often purchased in low volumes, which mostly eliminates stark price competition, emphasises on functionality and requires relationship-based marketing mix.

Micro-segmentation on the other hand requires a higher degree of knowledge. While macro-segmentation put the business into broad categories, helping a general product strategy, micro-segmentation is essential for the implementation of the concept. "Micro-segments are homogenous groups of buyers within the macro-segments" Macro-segmentation without micro-segmentation cannot provide the expected benefits to the organisation. Micro-segmentation focuses on factors that matter in the daily business; this is where "the rubber hits the road". The most common criteria include the characteristics of the decision-making units within each macro-segment

E.g. - Buying decision criteria (product quality, delivery, technical support, price, and supply continuity). "The marketer might divide the market based on supplier profiles that appear to be preferred by decision-makers, e.g. high quality - prompt delivery - premium price vs. standard quality - less-prompt delivery - low price".

- Purchasing strategy, which falls into two categories, according to Hutt and Speh: First, there are companies who contact familiar suppliers (some have vendor lists) and place the order with the first supplier that fulfils the buying criteria. These tend to include more OEM's than public sector buyers. Second, organisations that consider a larger number of familiar and unfamiliar suppliers, solicit bids, examine all proposals and place the order with the best offer. Experience has shown that considering this criterion as part of the segmentation principles can be highly beneficial, as the supplier can avoid unnecessary costs by, for eg. not spending time and resources unless officially approved in the buyer's vendor list.

- Structure of the decision-making unit can be one of the most effective criteria. Knowing the decision-making process has been shown to make the difference between winning and losing a contract. If this is the case, the supplier can develop a suitable relationship with the person / people that has / have real decision-making power. For eg., the medical equipment market can be segmented on the basis of the type of institution and the responsibilities of the decision makers, according to Hutt and Speh. A company that sells protective coatings for human implants would adapt a totally different communication strategy for doctors than hip-joint manufacturers.

- Perceived importance of the product to the customer's business (e.g. automotive transmission, or peripheral equipment, e.g. manufacturing tool)

- Attitudes towards the supplier: Personal characteristics of buyers (age, education, and job title and decision style) play a major role in forming the customers purchasing attitude as whole. Is the decision-maker a partner, supporter, neutral, adversarial or an opponent? Industrial power systems are best "sold" to engineering executive than purchasing managers; industrial coatings are sold almost exclusively to engineers; matrix and raw materials are sold normally to purchasing managers or even via web auctions.


Attempting to include two vast topics such as India and China into this discussion is naive. However, one element that should never be left out of sight while segmenting, targeting and positioning, is competition. This is a key concern that may impact the success of the company, especially as one of segmentation's core objectives is differentiation.

Apart from the expected competition within a company's known geographic reach, competition is seriously taking shape from China and India, both of whom have been predicted to become global economic superpowers within a few years. The bulk of the threat is facing Europe and North America. "Italy is the sick man of Europe-its economy has shrunk 4% since 1999. Along with Germany and France, the nation has been struggling with weak consumer spending, waning productivity and rising government deficit. Italy's economic structure is almost perfectly shaped for an attack by China. "The threat is not only relevant to Italy, but the whole of Europe, including the UK,

As modern industries are driven by mechanical and electronics technologies, and both of these are being dominated by either China or India, the balance of economic power is bound to shift from West to East. This will impact the way companies do business. Those that can offer low-cost, efficient solutions sourced in either of those countries are likely to survive and prosper provided they take advantage of the modern communication skills to market themselves appropriately.


1. Kotler, Philip "Kotler on Marketing Management.
2. Hutt, Michael & Speh, Thomas (2001), ,,Business Marketing Management Seventh Edition,
A Study of Leadership Styles and their Impact

A Study of Leadership Styles and their Impact

Paper presented at the Academy of Human Resources Development International Research Conference on HRD in Asia, 2002, IIM, Bangalore

This study attempts to identify the impact of three different leadership styles on the learning climate generated in the organization as perceived by 48 top level managers in a company. The leadership styles studied are: benevolent or paternalistic style, critical style and developmental style. The impact variables studies include the extent to which they produce loyalty and dependence, resentment and counter dependence and learning, job satisfaction and morale. The study indicated that while benevolent style creates dependence and resentment, critical style creates resentment and it is developmental style that tends to creates learning and job satisfaction. The findings are in expected directions. The implications of these findings for change in leadership styles using 360 Degree feedback are discussed.

Introduction: What is Leadership? Some contemporary Observations

No matter what leaders set out to do-whether it's creating strategy or mobilizing teams to action-their success depends on how they do it." ( Goleman, 2002, p.3)

Leadership has been defined in so many ways and by different authors and experts.
Noel Tichy and Cohen (1997) the authors of "Leadership Engine" points out:

The scarcest resource in the world today is the leadership talent capable of continuously transforming organizations to win in tomorrow's world. The individuals and organizations that build Leadership Engines and invest in leaders developing other leaders have a sustainable competitive advantage.(p.Cool

According to Tichy and Cohen:

Winning leaders with a proven record take direct responsibility for developing other leaders

Winning leaders can articulate and teach to others about how to make the organization successful. They tell stories about their past and explain their learning experiences and beliefs

They have well-developed methodologies for teaching others.

Leadership talent can be nurtured and it is never too late or early to develop one own leadership abilities and talent of others.

Leaders are normally viewed as those people who motivate one or more people to do a specific thing.

Warren Bennis says that the basis of the leadership is the capacity to change the mindset or framework of the other person. (Tichy, and Cohen, 1997)

Briane Lee (1997) of Franklin Covey after reviewing a number of studies on leadership states after a review of modern definitions of leadership that leadership is

* An intensely human enterprise, and does not fit neatly into definitions and boxes. Leaders have all the spontaneity, unpredictability, frailty, vulnerability and potential that is possible in the human race. If we are to lead with honor, we must start with the premise that flexibility, adaptability, and wisdom are possible, that we have seeds of greatness in us, and if we care deeply about the lives of others, we can work together to accomplish worthwhile things." (P265).

Tom Peters (1997) quoting Warren Bennis points out that one thing in common to most leaders is that they all make mistakes but bounce back from them. They use failures as building blocks.

The ability to spend more time framing contexts and less time defining the content more through coaching and supporting rather than directing and controlling becomes the model for middle managers (Ghosal and Bartlet, 1997)

Hessebbein and Cohen (1998) of the Drucker Foundation say that leaders exist at all levels of the organization. They identified the following traits of leaders:

They excel seeing things from fresh eyes and they challenge status quo

They are energetic and seem to be able to run through obstacles

They are deeply interested in a cause or discipline related to their professional arena

They can tap convictions of others and connect them to the organizational arena

They help every one see what their everyday work means to larger purpose They have a high quest for learning

They are open to people and their ideas

They are driven by goals or ideals that are bigger than what an individual can accomplish

They are willing to push themselves from comfort zones even after they have achieved success

Smart (1998) in his book on "Top Grading" lists 50 critical competencies for top graders. Some of these include: Intelligence; Analytical skills; Judgement and decision making; Conceptual ability; Creativity; Strategic skills; Pragmatism; Risk taking; Integrity; Initiative; Excellence; Self awareness; Adaptability; Listening; Team Player; Assertiveness; Communications; Political savvy; Running meetings; Vision; Change management; Conflict management; Energy; Ambition; Enthusiasm; Tenacity; and
Balance in life.

Daniel Goleman (1998) considers Emotional Intelligence as central to leadership. In his chapter on the competencies of stars Goleman identifies personal and social competencies as constituting the emotional competence. The following characteristics have been included in his framework:

Personal competencies determine how we manage ourselves. These include:

1. Self-awareness (knowing one's internal states, resources, and intuitions). This includes emotional awareness, accurate self-assessment, and self-confidence.
2. Self-regulation including managing one's internal states, impulses and resources. These include self-control, Trustworthiness, Conscientiousness, Adaptability, and Innovation
3. Motivation, including the tendencies that guide or facilitate reaching goals. These include Achievement drive, Commitment, Initiative, and optimism.

Social Competencies that determine how we handle relationships. These include:

1. Empathy or awareness of others' feelings needs and concerns. These include understanding others, developing others, Service orientation, Leveraging Diversity, and political awareness. In others.
2. Social skills dealing with adeptness at inducing desirable response. These include
Influence, Communication, Conflict management, Leadership, Change Catalyst, Building bonds, Collaboration and Cooperation and building team capabilities.

Goleman observes "Emotional, a role whose essence is getting others to do their jobs more effectively. Interpersonal ineptitude in leaders lowers everyone's performance: It wastes time, creates acrimony, corrodes motivation and commitment, and builds hostility and apathy. A leader's strengths or weaknesses in emotional competence can be measured in the gain or loss to the organization of the fullest talents of those they manage." (P32).

Goleman indicates that the traits of outstanding leaders transcend cultural and national boundaries. The most effective CEOs have been found to have three main clusters of competencies. The first two fall under emotional intelligence. They include: personal competencies like achievement, self-confidence, and commitment and the second consists of social competence like influence, political awareness and empathy. The third clusters of competencies are cognitive: they think strategically, seeking out information with a broad scan, and apply strong conceptual thinking. They blend all these into an inspired vision and influence the thinking of others.

Jefery Peffer (1998) observes three qualities of most successful transformations:
" Build trust
" Encourage change
" Measure the right things and align the incentive system to new practices
Peffer argues that a people centered approach can increase profits and give competitive advantage to itself.

Goleman (2002) in his recent book on "The New Leaders" Has presented enough evidence on how moods of people influence their work and productivity and how leaders in turn through their styles influence the moods of their people. He presented evidence through a number of studies indicating the following:

Negative emotions like anger, anxiety, or a sense of futility powerfully disrupt work;

Best leaders find a way to understand and improve the way they handle their own and other people's emotions;

When leaders drive emotions positively it results in resonance and when they draw it negatively it results in dissonance;

People take their emotional cues from the top and besides affecting their direct reports leaders also send out ripple effects through out the organization;

When people feel good they work at their best the more positive the moods of the top management are more cooperatively they work together and the better are the results.

The climate created by the CEOs among their direct reports predicted the business performance of their organizations;

How people feel about their working for the company accounts for about 20 to 30% of the success of the company.

Goleman (2202) identified the following six leadership styles:
1. Visionary Leader: who moves people towards shared dreams
2. Coaching leader who connects what a person wants with the organization
3. Affiliative leader who creates harmony by connecting people to each other
4. Democratic leader who values people's input and gets their commitment through participation
5. Pace setting leader who meets challenging and exciting goals
6. Commanding leader who soothes fear by giving clear direction in an emergency.
Goleman highlighted the appropriateness of each of these for different situations.

Leadership Styles

Rao (1986) has classified the leadership styles, on the basis of the earlier research at the Indian Institute of Management, into the following:

A Benevolent or Paternalistic leadership style in which the top level manager believes that all his employees should be constantly guided treated with affection like a parent treats his children, is relationship oriented, assigns tasks on the basis of his own likes and dislikes, constantly guides them and protects them, understands their needs, salvages the situations of crisis by active involvement of himself, distributes rewards to those who are loyal and obedient, shares information with those who are close to him, etc
A Critical leadership style is characterized as closer to Theory X belief pattern where the manager believes that employees should be closely and constantly supervised, directed and reminded of their duties and responsibilities, is short term goal oriented, cannot tolerate mistakes or conflicts among employees, personal power dominated, keeps all information to himself, works strictly according to norms and rules and regulations and is highly discipline oriented.

A Developmental leadership style is characterized as an empowering style, where the top manager believes in developing the competencies of his staff, treats them as mature adults, leaves them on their own most of the times, is long term goal oriented, shares information with all to build their competencies, facilitates the resolution of conflicts and mistakes by the employees themselves with minimal involvement from him.

Developmental style by nature seems to be the most desired organization building style. However some individuals and some situations require at times benevolent and critical styles. Some managers are not aware of the predominant style they tend to use and the effects their style is producing on their employees.

This classification is based on the observations made by Stewart and Rao (1976) as a part of a collaborative study by the author and David McClelland of Harvard University using the Psychosocial Maturity models of Stewart (Stewart and Rao, 1976). In this model when the TAT stories written by adults in response pictures that are supposed to arouse Achievement and other motives, were analyzed, they were found to depict characters (heroes and others) in ways that represented the Freudian developmental stages. Superimposing these observations and analyzing the styles of Indian Managers the author formulated the three leadership styles mentioned above.

Objectives of this Study:

This study aimed at the following:

1. To study the impact of the three leadership styles on the feelings each of them generate among the subordinates who work with the leader;
2. To assess the magnitude of the relation ship between the style shown in different situations (goal setting, management of mistakes, etc.) and the feelings generated among the subordinates (dependency, resentment, empowerment etc.); and
3. To study the extent to which each of the nine situations are related to the overall style and examine the magnitude of their predictive ability.

The Instrument

The Leadership styles questionnaire that assessed the style of dealing with nine different situations like managing rewards, managing conflicts, managing mistakes, assignment of tasks, communication etc. For each situation three alternative styles that are supposed to most characteristic of Indian Managers (on the basis of previous research) were presented and the assessor was asked to indicate which of the extent to which each of the styles characterize the individual. The respondent assessed on a five points scale. The points were later converted into a percentage score. The style average was calculated using the average score obtained by each candidate on the style item. The instrument used had items like the following:

Managing mistakes:

a) Comes to the rescue of subordinates and salvages the situation whenever they make a mistake
b) Does not tolerate mistakes. Gets emotional and reprimands when mistakes re made
c) Helps subordinates to learn from mistakes

In the above item (a) represented benevolent style, (b) represented critical style and (c) represented developmental style.

The nine situations where styles were assessed include: goal setting, information sharing, managing conflicts, recognizing and rewarding good performance, decision making, performance monitoring, providing resources and support, and management of failures by subordinates. In each of these situations the benevolent style or paternalistic meant valuing relationships, treating with affection, providing active guidance, taking charge of the situation, acting like a father figure etc. The critical style meant criticism, direction, reprimanding, exhibiting impatience, and short term goral orientation and theory X type beliefs. The developmental style meant providing minimum guidance and letting the individual act with autonomy and investment on competence building and professional way of dealing with things.

The impact items measured the extent to which the subordinates feel dependent on the boss and develop personal loyalty to him/her, the extent to which they resent his presence and avoid work and avoid the boss, the extent to which they feel empowered and growing, learn, have job satisfaction and morale. Six items measured the impact.

The Sample

The sample consisted of 48 senior Managers from an organization. They were assessed by a total of 578 assessors (colleagues, seniors and subordinates) on the Leadership Styles questionnaire. They were assessed on nine situations and six impact items. The candidates also assessed themselves on their leadership styles and their impact. Self assessment was treated separately and the combined assessment of all the others on each candidate was taken as representing the leadership style as well as the impact. Thus the sample is considered as 96 (N= 48 self assessments and 48 average of other's assessments). Thus in all on 27 leadership items and six impact items self and others assessment was made.

Data Analysis:

Across the nine situations nine items represented benevolent style, nine represented critical style and nine represented developmental style. The average of the scores on the nine items falling under each style category gave the style score. The style score therefore is the extent to which the style was exhibited by the candidate across the nine situations. The scores wee converted into percentage scores. Taking each individual self assessment as well as combined assessment of all the other (aggregate feedback of all the others on that item expressed in percentages) was taken. Coefficients of correlation were computed between the styles and their impact. The styles were correlated using the overall scores across all then items.


Relationship between Leadership Style and Subordinate Feelings and Reactions

The coefficients of correlations obtained between the three leadership styles taking into account all the nine situation and the six type of feelings or emotional climate generated by each of styles is presented below:

Benevolent style

Benevolent or paternalistic style was correlated with feelings of loyalty and dependence of subordinates on the manger. (r = 0.51)
Benevolent style was also related to feelings of dislike for the boss and tendency to avoid work ( r = 54)
Benevolent style was negatively related to feelings of development, empowerment, growth and independent thinking ( r = -0.5), learning (r = -0.4), morale (r= -0.5) and satisfaction (r = -0.4)
These indicate that those who are close to the leader develop dependency on him/her while those who are not close to him/her develop resentment and other associated negative feelings.
Critical Style

Critical style highly and positively related to resentment and dislike for the boss and work (r = 0.75)
It was moderately and positively correlated with dependency and personal loyalty (r = 0.47)
It was negatively correlated with empowerment and growth (r = -0.6), learning (r= -0.5), morale (r= -0.6) and satisfaction (r = - 0.6)
These indicate hat critical style also is not a desirable in general and leads to disastrous consequences.
Development al Style

Developmental style was positively related to empowerment, growth and independence (r = 0.73), learning (r = 0.77), morale (r = 0.85) and satisfaction (r = 0.84)
It was negatively correlated with dependence (r= -0.4) and feelings of resentment or dislike for the boss or work (r= -0.7)
The findings make it clear that developmental style is the most desired style in terms of creation of a growth oriented, developmental, and learning culture.
These data indicate that it is the developmental style that creates most positive emotional climate. This is in very similar to the findings of McClelland on the characteristics of an Intuitional Leader.
Importance of Succession Planning

In today's fast moving environment, succession planning may be more important - and more difficult to conduct - than ever before. Executives frequently lament that their firms are chronically short of talent. Yet in a recent survey of 150 executives within the nation's 1,000 largest companies, while all agreed on the value of identifying successors, only 72 percent said they are currently preparing someone to take their place. The absence of a succession plan can seriously hamper the growth prospect of an organization. Imagine the disastrous consequences when there is a sudden vacuum at the top level. Critical plans needing immediate action get postponed. Suitable candidates may not be available internally, as no one has been groomed in the past, keeping such an eventuality in mind. Bringing in outsiders may mitigate the crisis temporarily but the long-term impact is bound to be negative. Internal forces may start a rebellion and create tug-of-war situations with frustrating regularity.

The purpose of succession planning is to identify and develop people to replace current jobholders in key positions. Through succession planning, companies assure a steady flow of internal talent to fill important vacancies. Succession planning encourages 'hiring from within' and creates a healthy environment where employees have careers and not merely jobs. It helps in identifying human resource shortages and skill shortages before opening occur. Thereafter, it becomes easy to groom qualifies candidates for future vacancies. The organization is thus assured of continuity of operations and better-qualified incumbents.

Whether the approach is formal or informal, businesses have known potential successors for all levels of management. In some large organizations, succession planning is formal and structured with potential upper-level managers being put through development activities, including on-the-job trials that test them with specifically delegated assignments. Smaller organizations rarely engage in formal succession planning, but they aren't really necessary. Each manager can identify and prepare potential successors without a formal program. First-line managers who oversee the activities of employees doing hands-on work have the best opportunity to develop successors.

Succession planning management includes the following activities:

* Identifying the shortage of leadership skills and defining the requirements.

* Identifying potential successors for critical positions.

* Coach and groom the 'Stars': Enriching developmental opportunities must be thrown open to potential successors such as handling two important projects, a foreign country assignment, a major market research job, a new product launch, a complex industrial relations exercise etc.

* Secure top management's commitment and support.

Preparing a schedule for succession is critical to the success of a company, especially at the top level. When the baton changes over a period of time, disruption and dislocation are minimized. Indeed, when a new CEO is meant to consolidate on past successes, a slow shift is ideal. If qualifies candidates are not available within the company, outsiders can be considered readily for possible openings. Complete dependence on succession from with or from outside is not desirable. Internal candidates require a 'pat on the back' when they do well. External candidate are needed for injecting fresh blood into the company.
Challenges being faced by BPO Industries


India is making progress by leap and bound on one hand, and on the other hand, there are several important challenges are being faced by the industry. These challenges are:

* Managing the high attrition rate of 30-to40%: - Sometimes the prospect of earning could trigger the young employees to switch over to a rival firm.

* Offering high incomes: - To retain employees is a problem since this is a low margin industry with billing rates varying between $6 per hour to $20 per hour based on the nature of work.

* Mushrooming of small players: - Attractive growth rate of the BPO-ITES industry has resulted in many reckless starts-ups. Several companies from unrelated sectors without the required expertise entered the industry lured by the healthy potential of the industry. These small companies are now finding difficult to survive in this capital-intensive industry.

* Language problems: - Insufficient proficiency in English language is a major hurdle for the country.

* Shortage of training programme: - Though educated youngsters are available in plenty, training a large number of them in the needed skills for quick ramp up of numbers is difficult due shortage of trainers.

* Night shifts: Because of night shifts the employees become impatient and even angry, they also suffer from high stress level, fatigue and ill health.

* Outsourcing are countered by some other important challenges:

Data collected from the sources: Reviews and Summaries of five articles on current outsourcing trends

1. Selection of ideal outsourcing partner

* Price
* Expertise in a particular industry
* Integration capabilities
* Training and qualifications
* Overall customer service strategy
* Company information privacy
* Knowledge in latest technology

2. Dynamic challenges

* Management challenges
* Cultural/language communication risks
* Security risks
* Legal concerns
* Time zone challenges
* Knowledge transfer challenges
* Legal issues

3. Outsourcing in-house problems

* Sign up for projects without enough preparation
* Striking big deals for the wrong reasons
* Lack of legal and regulatory expertise
* Appropriate recruitment
* Shortage of technical expertise
* Up-front investment

US CONCERNS: There are some anti-outsourcing trend booming in US, but the US Chamber of Commerce ("USCC") has evidently come out sturdily in favor of outsourcing as it considers it good for the US economy and it has reportedly decided to fight legislative moves against outsourcing of jobs to countries where jobs are being outsourced:
Performance Management & Appraisal System (PMA)  in an Organization


The Performance Management in an Organization is based certain approaches like 360 degree feedback, balanced scorecard, rankings, standards of other performance, rating scales and the problem appears from time to time. While they are working satisfactorily, there are chances to fail drastically in practice. It is very difficult to measure the expectancy that employees, managers and Organizations like to give for them. It is the implementation of methodology given, well accompanied and managed by effective and result oriented training as to how it should be utilized to solve the unlimited problems. It is very clear that Organizations even expect and encourage their managers to interact informally with their peer groups, employees about their performance on ongoing basis. In a normal distribution, 10 percent will be natural capacity to discuss about their performance with the peer group very effectively but rest 90 percent will give their feedback and discussion will only remain as task which is found easier said than doing. Besides, negative consequences on the problems of this nature on productivity of an Organization, costs on the low morale and demotivation will be on higher side. But perception and some questions raises on the ethics and moral of an Organizations' commitment and responsibility in developing its employees. . It is very essential that the Managers and employees should inter act each other and come to the crux of the problem and solve the problem like communication skills, interaction about the performance, appreciating and motivating each other so that the process cannot be stopped before it begins. This study explored on primary and secondary data adopting Convenient and Random sampling method using several different ways depending on the organization's vision for improving performance-related information and communication.


The Performance Management in an Organization is based certain approaches like 360 degree feedback, balanced scorecard, rankings, standards of other performance, rating scales and the problem appears from time to time. While they are working satisfactorily, there are chances to fail drastically in practice. It is very difficult to measure the expectancy that employees, managers and Organizations like to give for them. It is the implementation of methodology given, well accompanied and managed by effective and result oriented training as to how it should be utilized to solve the unlimited problems. It is very clear that Organizations even expect and encourage their managers to interact informally with their peer groups, employees about their performance on ongoing basis. In a normal distribution, 10 percent will be natural capacity to discuss about their performance with the peer group very effectively but rest 90 percent will give their feedback and discussion will only remain as task which is found easier said than doing. Besides, negative consequences on the problems of this nature on productivity of an Organization, costs on the low morale and demotivation will be on higher side. But perception and some questions raises on the ethics and moral of an Organizations' commitment and responsibility in developing its employees.

Current situation:

Normally there is a huge amount of gap, frustration and dissatisfaction with existing methods of formal employee performance management and appraisal (EPMA) system. Irrespective of whether the approach is based on rating scales, competency assessments, objectives, key performance indicators, or other performance standards, rankings, 360-degree feedback, or the balanced scorecard, the problem remains the same with each and every Organization. Though it appears to be superficially to work well enough in theory, to a larger or greater extent they all tend to fail in practice. They just don't seem to measure up to the expectations that managers, employees, and organizations alike have for them. This also proves to be the case even when the implementation of a given method is well managed and accompanied by proper training on how it should be implemented or used

Generally functionality of an Organization may be controlled rigidly from Head Quarters not only as regards the results it has to achieve, but also how results are achieved. Organizational structures impinge on performance because; they are the framework for getting things done. Today the case is on flexibility, teamwork and rapid response. Organizations encourage, even expect their managers to discuss informally with their employees about their performance on a continuous basis. However, this is again a tooth and nail procedure. Moreover, even if it does occur, often it is not ideal or less than ideal. Despite all the best efforts to date, managers still Managers shows their discomfort in giving feedback and to discuss about the performance with their employees, especially if the performance is not in the expected phenomena. Consequently, they avoid the situation, or fudge the facts, whenever possible.

The reasoning behind formal or informal EPMA is laudable; however, the methods we currently use do not achieve the expected results as we dream. The bottom line is that "open and honest" communication remains elusive. The problem is real and pervasive and every organization seems to be struggling with it.

Why the Problem exist?

The root cause of the problem seems to lie in the way in which managers form their perceptions and attributes about their employees. Especially t it happens: when managers form opinions about employee performance, instinctively analyze both objective and subjective data collected from observing and interacting with them over time and again under various circumstances and situations.

Objective data produced by the employee will be measured and the results produced can be related to the defined objectives already existing and also the standard of performance. On the other hand, subjective data includes tangible and therefore less measurable Eg., Perception about the employee:

'Attitudes' (to anything and everything).
Leadership ability
Communication skills.
Interpersonal skills (how confident, comfortable, and tactful they are in dealing with peers, customers, senior managers, etc.).
Personal grooming and attire.
Ability to work independently.
Dealing with issues such as conflicts, disagreements, ambiguity.
Ability to make people feel good and look good in front of others.
Ability to get along with a team
This combined objective and subjective data of the Managers generates interpretation and forms the opinions, conclusions, judgments upon which their impressions about the overall performance of an employee, - i.e. how the employee is 'doing. Things like, "good worker,' "good interpersonal skills,' "no leadership ability,' "not a team player,' etc., form the mental impression and the manager draws conclusions about this employee's 'fit' in the organization, and also makes a comparative study on Potential Appraisal and his future Performance Appraisal.

Implications and Approaches to Performance Management:

Approaches are based on the evaluation of character of an employee. This system may also list some personal traits such as ability to get along with people, judgments, initiative etc., Added work related characteristics such as job knowledge, ability to complete an assignment, success in carrying out plans etc., The major problem is that generally majority of the Managers lacks the ability to discuss and explain the appraisal of an employee in an effective way and will not have a clear solution to the problem. The following examples show how the root cause of the problem manifests itself within the most popular approaches to EPMA in the organization.

Rating Approaches :

The rating approaches lists out the traits and the range of performance values for each trait. The Manager on an continuous scale measures in numbers ranging from 0 to 5 whereas ratings are objective in nature and they can be effectively used as evaluators. Still the Managers cannot give their honest communication to the employee effectively.

Competency based approaches:

The definitions and dimensions indicates that the competency-frameworks provided in the organizations which includes knowledge, attitudes, value and skills help managers to identify the internal efficiency, operational efficiency, quality of delivery and responsiveness etc., However, these definitions are still generic. Consequently, they can end up complicating the problem because they are rarely specific enough to be of any real help in getting to the heart of any issue. Because of the complex nature of human performance, it is rare that any given situation will fit cleanly into a competency-based form.

540 Degree Feedbacks:

In this, the customers and suppliers also evaluate the performance which helps us to differentiate from the 360 degree performance. The Managers evaluate an employee based on the feedback from the stakeholders, superiors, subordinates, peers, internal and external clients. But the problem in the whole process is that it assumes that the employee will understand the feedback agree with it and in case it is negative know what to do to bring a great changes which is a rare case. Though there may be some benefit it may be soliciting feedback and it is totally inappropriate for direct managers because they should never give feedback anonymously. It amounts to a cowardly way out when, by virtue of their position over the employee, they have an organizational, moral, and ethical responsibility to talk to him and explain their feedback, and help the employee figure out how to achieve desired performance. Therefore, this system doesn't solve the initial problem - namely, the inability to explain, justify, and communicate the feedback effectively


Normal Procedure is thinking of ongoing performance management for employees, for example, setting goals, monitoring the employee's achievement of those goals, sharing feedback with the employee, evaluating the employee's performance, rewarding performance or firing the employee. Performance management applies to organizations, too, and includes recurring activities to establish organizational goals, monitor progress toward the goals, and make adjustments to achieve those goals more effectively and efficiently. Those recurring activities are much of what leaders and managers inherently do in their organizations -- some do them far better than others.

The solution to improve the quality of both formal appraisal and informal performance management related feedback does not lie in trying to improve the technical elements of any given approach. Rather, it lies in helping managers to overcome the difficulties that they face when trying to articulate what they know about how an employee is (really) doing into individualized quality information.

The method outlined in this article shows managers a simple and logical way that they can analyze and validate both the positive and negative aspects of their fuzzy mental impressions. It then shows them how to communicate the information in a way that builds the employee's self-esteem, confidence, and desire to do well. It can be used in several different ways depending on the organization's vision for improving performance-related information and communication. It is very essential that the Managers and employees should inter act each other and come to the crux of the problem and solve the problem like communication skills, interaction about the performance, appreciating and motivating each other so that the process cannot be stopped before it begins.



1. Andy Neely, Mike Gregory, Ken Platts Journal: International Journal of Operations & Production Management Year: 1995 Volume: 15 Issue: 4 Page: 80 - 116 DOI: 10.1108/01443579510083622
Manage Stress with Spirituality and Enjoy Work Life

Stress is usually thought of a negative terms. Stress can manifest itself in both positive and negative ways. The positive stress is known as Eustress. It is viewed as a motivator since in its absence the individual lacks that 'edge' necessary for peak performance. Stress is considered negative when it is associated with heart diseases, absenteeism, breakdowns, physical and organizational and emotional problems. Stress can either help or hinder one's effectiveness depending upon the stress level. When the level increases, personal effectiveness increases but, when the stress crosses the optimum level, the persons' effectiveness declines. Too much tension in the string also yields very poor result and may break the string. Only optimal amount of tension only produces pleasant music. There are several major sources of stress.

Spirituality is the essence and religion is form. Spirituality is the source of an unlimited number of forms of human experience may take, like meditation, prayer and treating others with respect, dignity and as equals. The Managers in an organization are more concerned about their workers and subordinates and the impact of spirituality on their working habits. Workplace spirituality refers to the ways few express our spirituality at work, both for personal support and in making ethical and just decisions. The effect of spirituality is Planning, Organisation, Directing, Coordinating and controlling.

Unlearn Egos: EGO means Edging God Out. Very important I in us creating a sense of separateness and we inflict our personalities with pride and selfishness. Ego keeps us away from reality and makes our perceptions distorted. We become rude, aggressive and indifferent at work. Instead of overpowering out ego and throwing away rotten mentalities, we keep on blowing our own horn about No Overwork without compensation. Resulting in frustration, fatigue, stress and reduced effectiveness. As "Patanjali says "The mind is like a clear crystal. It has simply got covered with dust (EGO) If you want to see life clearly you have to wash all the dirt off. A person engulfed with such dirty attitudes will pollute everybody and everything around him. Ego widens the gap between people and destroys relationships. The only way to overcome ego is to be patient and sympathetic and doing work inspired by a higher spirit. The Vedas offer important lessons to all of us that in order to realize our full potential, we must get rid of egoism, which breeds from ignorance.


"Stress "refers to an individual's reaction to a disturbing factor in the environment. It is defined as an adaptive response to an external situation that results in physical, psychological, and behavioral deviations for organizational participants. Stress is the feeling one experience when he perceives a gap between what one wants and what one gets or has; it becomes an excess of demands over the individual's ability to meet them. It is an internal reaction caused by our perception or interpretation of what is outside and it results in building up of commotion within us.

Stress is usually thought of a negative terms. Stress can manifest itself in both positive and negative ways. The positive stress is known as Eustress. It is viewed as a motivator since in its absence the individual lacks that 'edge' necessary for peak performance. Stress is considered negative when it is associated with heart diseases, absenteeism, breakdowns, physical and organizational and emotional problems.

Stress can either help or hinder one's effectiveness depending upon the stress level. When the level increases, personal effectiveness increases but, when the stress crosses the optimum level, the persons' effectiveness declines. Too much tension in the string also yields very poor result and may break the string. Only optimal amount of tension only produces pleasant music. There are several major sources of stress. The stressors generate from individual, group, organizational and extra organizational sources. Job stress is not limited just to things that happen inside the organization, during working hours. The other organizational stressors are family relocation, economic and financial conditions, race and class and community conditions etc.,

A group can also be a potential source of stress. These group stressors can be categorized into three areas. They are lack of group cohesiveness, lack of social support and intra individual, interpersonal and inter-group conflicts. Among individual factors contributing to stress are personality, life and career changes and lift trauma.

The following are the major stressors:

Procrastination: It affects most of us at sometime. Most often we procrastinate when faced with something we do not want to do. However most of the stress is self-induced and they are caused not by external events but by the way one looks at and interprets those events which occur in life.

Environmental and work stress:

This will affect from an inability to perform well in a particular role because of misunderstanding over what is required from the role of a boss or subordinate or because of lack of skills. It may come from overcrowding, pollution, untidiness and distractions.

Fatigue and Overwork: Here, stress builds up over a long period. This can occur where one tries to achieve too much in too little a time, or where one is not using effective time management strategies.

It is a result of a motivation being blocked to prevent one from reaching a desired goal. Assume that you are trying to finish a report by quitting time, but one interference after another requires your attention and your time. When we are sure that our goal for the day many not be reached, you are likely to become frustrated and become irritable and develop an uneasy feeling in your stomach, or have some other reaction. These reactions to frustration are known as Defense Mechanisms.


Stress can have serious consequences on both our health and work performance. The problems due to high levels of stress can be exhibited physically, psychologically or behaviourally by the individual. High levels of stress are also associates with ulcers, high blood pressure and arteriosclerosis. Stress can cause depression; irritation, anxiety, and fatigue lowered self-esteem and reduced job satisfaction. Sustained over a long period, stress can lead to attempts to escape through the use of drugs or alcohol. The job related stress leads to lower productivity. Lower quality, high health care cost and increasing employee conflicts.


There are few specific techniques that individuals can sue to eliminate or more effectively manage inevitable, prolonged stress conditions:

Yoga: Yoga is the most effective remedy for stress. It has been used in our country for centuries. Pranayaama, Manomaya Kosha, Anandamaya Kosha are useful to cope with stress.

Pace Yourself: Plan the day on a flexible basis. Do not try to do many things at a time. Slow down. Think before reacting to negative situations or people. Avoid the trap of trying to do too many things at a time and then failing to accomplish much.

Practice the relaxation response: Engage yourself in physical activity, such as swimming, walking, riding bicycles to get some exercise to combat stress. Freely discuss the problems, fears, frustrations and sources of uprightness with those who care about you.

Focus on situation and solution. Nothing will happen until we start concentrating on the solution. By deliberately managing the antecedents and the consequences of their own behaviour, people can achieve self-control and can avoid people or situations that they know will put them under stress. This strategy involves individuals controlling the situation instead of letting the situation control them.

MANAGE STRESS: The art of stress management is to keep our composure at a level that is healthy and enjoyable. The strategies that should be adopted to manage excessive stress depend on the source of that stress. Where stress and fatigue are long term, then life style and organizational changes may be appropriate. If the feeling of stress comes from adrenalin in the body, then it may be effective to relax the body and slow down the flow of adrenalin.

SPIRITUALITY; Due to stress, ambiguous, face paced, demanding, chaotic work life only value based working is the only solution. Inner wisdom is the only source that will sustain in the long run. Ethical and spiritual values have lost their place leading to employees with many mental problems and also dissatisfaction among them regarding their jobs. Spirituality is that which comes from within. Spirituality is beyond our programmed beliefs and values that is the source of wisdom. It is the source that influences to behave with passion, understanding, empathy and love.

Spirituality is the essence and religion is form. Spirituality is the source of an unlimited number of forms of human experience may take, like meditation, prayer and treating others with respect, dignity and as equals. The Managers in an organization are more concerned about their workers and subordinates and the impact of spirituality on their working habits. Workplace spirituality refers to the ways few express our spirituality at work, both for personal support and in making ethical and just decisions. The effects of spirituality are Planning, Organization, Directing, Coordinating and controlling.

First of all a Manager should establish a personal vision of their function in concert with the organization's vision use meditation and visualization to explore for creative consciousness for a vision that is consistent with the organization's higher purpose beyond self-interest. Now the manager will plan his work in concert with the vision of the Organization - create specific definable and measurable results that would ensure that his personal vision is achieved through the achievement of the organizational goals and objectives. Focus the employees; thoughts and actions on the things they can change or influence and leave the rest to the future.

Making unrealistic demand from employees will lead to stress and misunderstandings which worsens the position. Developing interpersonal communication skills such as listening to other's views and providing effective and timely feedback is a key to effective communication. When one's ideas and attitudes are effectively communicated to people around, they may land in a win win situation in every sphere of workplace or social gathering. This can save the manager and his subordinates from unnecessary misunderstandings and consequent tensions. Managers should value and integrate differences in all their business transactions - establish an accountability system that is performance, result oriented in terms of differences. After organizing the work and delegating it to others according to plans ascertained, the next step is to direct others during their functioning.

Manager must support their employees at every stage. Establish regular communication with personal source of guidance, wisdom and inspiration - take 5 to 10 minutes everyday to meditate, pray or introspect regarding a situation or opportunity that requires attention in the organization's life. Lot of importance is attached to including spirituality at all levels of managerial functions. Not only directing and motivating employees can lead to the successful achievement of organizational goals but it is also necessary to coordinate their activities, the next function of managers.

To avoid any conflict in the functioning of various departments in an organization, it is necessary for the managers to coordinate all their functions. Teamwork has the capacity to bring satisfaction to our efforts and learning to our minds and hearts. Challenge to strive to do one's best when others on the team simply want to get the task done well or not. The problem of most of the MNCs toeay is the cultural differences among employees, which can be dealt with effectively by including spirituality in manager's perception. Even one can develop a new level of appreciation.

The success of any plan made by the management depends upon the controlling function of the managers. Without effective control all managerial planning is futile. Nowadays, control function does not mean harsh control techniques adopted by managers which may include strict physical or monetary punishments rather a more understandable and realistic measure. The inclusion of spirituality at control level is important as it helps both, the managers as well as the employees to understand each other's problems and point of view in a more reasonable and sensible manner. The people are looking for leaders who are enlightened enough to provide a visionary leadership with an assertive communication, and inspiration to make a different. The main reason that today's work force predominantly behaves irresponsible and uncaring - according to many managers- is because they were expected to behave like machines, to do the job without thinking what was right or wrong.

A workplace where people have the feeling that they are an asset for the organization, the their family and their feelings are appreciated, that their thoughts on processes at work are heard and seriously considered, a workplace where there is z connection between top management and the operational level without many doors that need to be passed first, is a workplace where everyone will want to stay. This kind of work environment is possible only when spirituality is a part and parcel of management function and workers day to day activity.


Work is meant to be a celebration or source of enjoyment. It is a fulfillment. Instead it has turned out to be a drudgery or a pastime for a majority of us. Modern technology, fast life style and materialistic attitude disempowering us and we feel dull, fatigued, dejected and tortured. So what to do? The only time for enjoy and celebrate is on weekends when they unwind themselves. However a closer examination would reveal that we have only a vague and very subjective idea of the policies of our organizations and about the competitor's ways of working. Carefully we have to go step by step to derive some logical conclusions.

Unlearn Egos: EGO means Edging God Out. Very important I in us creating a sense of separateness and we inflict our personalities with pride and selfishness. Ego keeps us away from reality and makes our perceptions distorted. We become rude, aggressive and indifferent at work. Instead of overpowering out ego and throwing away rotten mentalities, we keep on blowing our own horn about No Overwork without compensation resulting in frustration, fatigue, stress and reduced effectiveness.

As "Patanjali says " The mind is like a clear crystal. It has simply got covered with dust (EGO) If you want to see life clearly you have to wash all the dirt off. A person engulfed with such dirty attitudes will pollute everybody and everything around him. Ego widens the gap between people and destroys relationships. The only way to overcome ego is to be patient and sympathetic and doing work inspired by a higher spirit. The Vedas offer important lessons to all of us that in order to realize our full potential, we must get rid of egoism, which breeds from ignorance.

We must have faith in our capacity to unlearn wrong attitudes. Help, guidance, inspiration may come from a Guru, guide or teacher, or it may be you yourself. Start unlearning" conditioned responses". A way to strengthen ourselves and ward off negativities is to remember that, inspite of outward differences and appearances; we are pure, perfect and divine in origin and part of one God. Be patient and cultivate faith. We must explore honesty.

We talk about our problems in front of out colleagues, bosses or whosoever in a public forum; we proclaim we are very hard working, often working late hours. We are quite positive in attitudes se say, and somebody else is making our life miserable. Infact, we are very dishonest. To hide our inefficiencies, we blame our bosses, organization and its policies. If we honestly introspect the present scenario, we will find that a lot of our problems and frustrations are self created and can be safely dumped away.

The Sloka of Gita says that do your work and do not wish for results. Your duty is to work and the results are in God's hands. People term this a propagation of fatalistic attitude amongst masses. In fact, Krishna is not wrong, only the interpretation is wrong. Krishna is not wrong, only the interpretation is wrong. Krishna never meant to say Work without rewards what he meant was that you keep on doing your work with full efforts, energy and concentration. Rewards will automatically follow. But if, while working, you keep on thinking and worrying about rewards, your efforts, energy and concentration on work will get reduced. So herein lies the crux- work dispassionately and it will never bore you henceforth.
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Time: 3 Hours June 2006 Max. Marks: 100

NOTE: There are 9 Questions in all.
Question 1 is compulsory and carries 20 marks. Answer to Q. 1. must be written in the space provided for it in the answer book supplied and nowhere else.
Out of the remaining EIGHT Questions answer any FIVE Questions. Each question carries 16 marks.
Any required data not explicitly given, may be suitably assumed and stated.

Q.1 Choose the correct or best alternative in the following: (2x10)

a. Electric field intensity due to line charge of infinite length is.

(A) . (B) .
(C) . (D) .

b. With respect to equipotential surface pick the odd one out.

(A) Potential is same every where
(B) Work done in moving charge from one point to another is zero
(C) Potential is different every where
(D) No current flows on this surface

c. Energy stored in a magnetic field is

(A) W= . (B) .
(C) W= . (D) .

d. The intrinsic impedance of free space is

(A) 75 ohm. (B) 73 ohm.
(C) 120 ohm. (D) 377ohm.

e. During night which layer does not exist?

(A) D layer (B) F1 layer
(C) F2 layer (D) E layer

f. The characteristic impedance is given by

(A) Z0 = (B)
(C) (D)

g. Transverse electric wave traveling in z- direction satisfies

(A) Ez = 0; Hz = 0 (B) Ez = 0; Hz ? 0
(C) Ez ? 0; Hz = 0 (D) Ez ? 0; Hz ? 0.

h. Radiation resistance of a /2 dipole is

(A) 73 . (B) 75 ohm
(C) 120 ohm (D) 377 ohm

i. The VSWR of a transmission line is

(A) directly proportional to load impedance and inversely to characteristic impedance.
(B) directly proportional to characteristic impedance and inversely to load impedance.
(C) Proportional to load and characteristic impedance.
(D) Directly proportional to voltage minimum and inversely to voltage maximum.

j. Poynting vector gives

(A) rate of energy flow.
(B) direction of polarization.
(C) intensity of electric field.
(D) intensity of magnetic field.

Answer any FIVE Questions out of EIGHT Questions.
Each question carries 16 marks.

Q.2 a. Using Gauss theorem, derive an expression for the electric field intensity due to a line charge of infinite length at distance R. (8)

b. A positive charge density of Qv C/m3 occupies a solid sphere. At a point in the interior at a distance 'r' from the center a small probe charge of +q is inserted. What is the force acting on the probe charge? (8)

Q.3 a. Prove Ampere's circuital law for time varying field condition in differential form. (7)

b. A circular conductor of 1cm radius has an internal magnetic field
where a = ?/ 2 ro and ro is the radius of the conductor. Calculate the total current in the conductor ( is unit vector). (9)

Q.4 a. Prove the electric field normal components are discontinuous across the boundary of separation between two dielectrics. (6)

b. Measurement made in the atmosphere show that there is an electric field which varies widely from time to time particularly during thunderstorms. Its average values on the surface of the earth and at a height of 1500m are found to be 100 and 25 directed downward respectively. Using Poisson's equation calculate i) the mean space charge in the atmosphere between 0 and 1500 m altitude ii) surface charge density on earth. (10)

Q.5 a. Derive an expression for equation of continuity and explain its
significance. (6)

b. Do the fields satisfy Maxwell's equation? (10)

Q.6 a. Write short notes on skin depth and skin effect (4)

b. Prove for a travelling uniform plane wave

where and are amplitudes of and , respectively. (12)

Q.7 a. Discuss the following terms
(i) Wavelength (ii) Phase velocity
(iii) Group velocity (iv) Propagation constant (8 )

b. A high frequency transmission line consists of a pair of open wires having a distributed capacitance of 0.01 ?F per Km and a distributed inductance of 3mH per Km. What is the characteristic impedance and propagation constant at f=10MHz? (4)

c. Comment on Impedance matching device. (4)

Q.8 a. Derive the condition for a distortionless line and comment on the result. (8 )

b. An antenna array presents an impedance of 300 ohms to the transmission line feeding it. The transmission line consists of two open wire lines whose spacing is 9" apart and the diameter of the wire is 0.1", calculate the dimension of a quarter wave line required for matching. (8 )

Q.9 a. Derive the wave equation for a TE wave and obtain all the field components in a rectangular wave guide. (11)

b. Find the cut-off wavelength in a standard rectangular wave guide for the TE11mode. (5)

Time: 3 Hours June 2006 Max. Marks: 100

NOTE: There are 9 Questions in all.

Question 1 is compulsory and carries 20 marks. Answer to Q. 1. A must be written in the space provided for it in the answer book supplied and nowhere else.

Out of the remaining EIGHT Questions answer any FIVE Questions. Each question carries 16 marks.

Any required data not explicitly given, may be suitably assumed and stated.

Q.1 A Choose the correct or best alternative in the following: (2x10)

a. A shunting railway engine pulls a coach with force F. The force R applied by the coach on the engine in the opposite direction would be

(A) R < F (B) R = F

(C) R > F (D) None of these

b. A rigid body subjected to three parallel forces is in equilibrium. The forces must be

(A) equal (B) collinear

(C) coplaner (D) non coplaner

c. A truss member is treated as a

(A) two force member (B) three force member

(C) pinned beam (D) fixed beam

d. The first moment of an area about an axis through its centroid is always

(A) zero. (B) minimum.

(C) maximum. (D) none of these.

e. The position of a particle is as x = 3t m, y = (4)t - 5t2 m, z = 0 where t is the time in seconds . The magnitude of its acceleration in m/s2 is

(A) 5. (B) 10

(C) 15. (D) 20

f. In a reciprocating engine, the instantaneous centre of rotation for the cross-head lies at

(A) the crosshead (B) one of the connecting rod ends

(C) one of the crank ends (D) none of these.

g. A uniform bar of length L and cross-sectional area A is under an axial force P. If the bar length and cross-sectional area are halved, the following would not change

(A) stress (B) strain

(C) elongation (D) young's modulus.

h. A hollow circular elastic shaft of inner radius R and outer radius 2R is under torsion such that the maximum shear strain in the material is ?. The shear strain at the inner radius would be

(A) 0 (B) ?/2

(C) ? (D) ?/4

i. The following term is not included for obtaining the hydraulic gradient line for pipeline flow.

(A) datum head (B) pressure head

(C) velocity head (D) none of these

j. In a free vortex of strength K the velocity of flow V at a point at a distance R from the centre of the vortex would be

(A) V = K (B) V = KR

(C) V = KR2 (D) K/R

Answer any FIVE Questions out of EIGHT Questions.

Each question carries 16 marks.

Q.2 a. Determine the resultant R of the two forces and a couple acting on the beam AB. Find the intercept of the resultant R on the x axis. (8)

b. The homogeneous rectangular block of weight W, width b and height H is placed on the rough horizontal surface. It is at impending slip when subjected to a horizontal force P at a height h = H/2. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is . Determine the location of a point C on the bottom surface of the block through which the resultant of the friction and normal reaction acts. (8)

Q.3 a. State and prove the parallel axis theorem for area moment of inertia. (8)

b. Calculate the moment of inertia of the area ABCDEF about the x axis. (8)

Q.4 a. The rod OA shown is rotating in the horizontal xy plane such that at any instant angle ? = t3/2 rad. At the same time the collar C is sliding outward along OA so that OC = r = 100t2 mm. The time t is measured in seconds in both cases. Determine the velocity of the collar when t = 1 s. (8)

b. A rigid pile has a mass of 800 kg and is driven into the ground using a hammer of mass 300 kg. The hammer falls from rest from a height of 0.5 m and strikes the top of the pile. If the impact is perfectly plastic, determine the impulse which the hammer imparts on the pile. (8)

Q.5 a. A rod AB, in contact with a vertical wall and horizontal floor shown, is sliding down in a vertical plane. At an instant when the rod is at an angle ? = tan-1 =3/4 with the wall, the velocity of end A is 3 m/s downward. Determine the velocity of point B at this instant. (8)

b. The thin uniform rod AB of length 1.5 m has a mass of 20 kg. It is released from rest when angle ? = 00. Determine the horizontal and vertical components of reaction at the pin at A on the rod at the instant when ? = 900. (8)

Q.6 a. An elastic stepped bar ABC consists of part AB of length L1 of cross-sectional area A1 and part BC of length L2 of cross-sectional area A2. The bar is fixed at both ends and subjected to a point load P at the step as shown. Determine the reactions from the wall at A and C. The Young's modulus of the material is E.

b. Derive the torsion formula for an elastic circular shaft. (8)

Q.7 Draw the shear force and bending moment diagrams for the beam loaded as shown. Determine the maximum S.F. and B.M. and their locations. Also find the point of contraflexure. If the beam has a rectangular cross-section with width 3 cm and depth 4 cm, determine the maximum bending stress in the beam. (16)

Q.8 a. A ship weighs 5000 kgf and has a cross-section at the waterline as shown. The centre of buoyancy B is 1.5 m below the free surface and the centre of gravity G is 0.6 m above the free surface. Determine the metacentric height. (8)

b. The velocity potential for a two dimensional flow field is given by f = 2x3y - xy3. Calculate the velocity field and obtain the stream function. (8)

Q.9 a. A horizontal pipe of 0.6 m diameter and 1.5 km long is discharging water under a head of 30 m at the inlet. To increase the discharge, a pipe of the same diameter is introduced in parallel to the first in the second half of its length. Neglecting minor losses, find the increase in discharge if the friction factor f = 0.04. (8)

b. A centrifugal pump1.3 m in diameter delivers 3.5 m3/min. of water at a tip speed of 10 m/s and a flow velocity of 1.6 m/s. The outlet blade angle is 300 to the tangent at the impeller periphery. Assuming zero whirl at inlet and zero slip, calculate the torque delivered by the impeller. (8)

Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 100

NOTE: There are 9 Questions in all.
Question 1 is compulsory and carries 20 marks. Answer to Q. 1. must be written in the space provided for it in the answer book supplied and nowhere else.
Out of the remaining EIGHT Questions answer any FIVE Questions. Each question carries 16 marks.
Any required data not explicitly given, may be suitably assumed and stated.
Q.1 Choose the correct or best alternative in the following: (2x10)

a. The electron relaxation time of metal A is , that of B is . The ratio of resistivity of B to resistivity of A will be

(A) 4. (B) 2.0.
(C) 0.5. (D) 0.25.

b. The overall bandwidth of two identical voltage amplifiers connected in cascade will

(A) remain the same as that of a single stage.
(B) be worse than that of a single stage.
(C) be better than that of a single stage.
(D) be better if stage gain is low and worse if stage gain is high.

c. Field effect transistor has

(A) large input impedance. (B) large output impedance.
(C) large power gain. (D) large voltage gain.

d. Which of the following parameters is used for distinguishing between a small signal and a large-signal amplifier?

(A) Voltage gain (B) Frequency response
(C) Harmonic Distortion (D) Input/output impedances

e. Which of the following will not decrease as a result of introduction of negative feedback?

(A) Instability (B) Bandwith
(C) Overall gain (D) Distortion

f. If the feedback signal is returned to the input in series with the applied voltage, the input impedance _________.

(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) does not change (D) becomes infinity

g. Most of linear ICs are based on the two transistor differential amplifier because of its

(A) input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristic.
(B) high voltage gain.
(C) high input resistance.
(D) high CMRR

h. The waveform of the output voltage for the circuit shown in the Fig.1 (RC>>1) is a

(A) sinusoidal wave. (B) square wave.
(C) series of spikes. (D) triangular wave.

i. A single phase diode bridge rectifier supplies a highly inductive load. The load current can be assumed to be ripple free. The ac supply side current waveform will be

(A) sinusoidal. (B) constant dc.
(C) square. (D) triangular.

j. Which of the following Boolean rules is correct?

(A) A+0 = 0 (B) A+1 = 1
(C) (D)

Answer any FIVE Questions out of EIGHT Questions.
Each question carries 16 marks.

Q.2 a. State and explain the characteristics of a zener diode. How it can be used as a voltage regulator? (8 )

b. For the circuit shown in Fig.2, find the maximum and minimum values of zener diode current. (8 )

Q.3 a. What is a cascode pair? Give the basic circuit characteristic of a cascode amplifier. ( 8 )

b. The parameters of the transistor in the circuit shown in Fig.3 are . Find
(i) midband gain
(ii) the value of necessary to give a lower 3 dB frequency of 20 Hz
(iii) the value of necessary to ensure less than 10% tilt for a 100 Hz square wave input. (8 )

Q.4 a. What are the relative merits and demerits of a FET amplifier over a transistor amplifier? (8 )

b. Draw circuit of a transformer coupled single stage transistor power amplifier and explain the need for impedance matching. (8 )

Q.5 a. Derive mathematical expressions showing how the application of negative feedback in amplifiers affects the following characteristics of the amplifier.
(i) Frequency response. (ii) Stability of gain. (8 )

b. Draw a neat circuit diagram of a Colpitt's oscillator using an N-P-N transistor. Give its equivalent circuit. Derive the expression for the following :
(i) the frequency of oscillations.
(ii) the minimum gain for sustained oscillations. (8 )

Q.6 a. Explain the operation of an op-amp as a subtractor. (8 )

b. For the circuit shown in Fig.4, determine voltage gain, input impedance, output impedance, common-mode gain and CMRR if and transistors and are identical with . Determine output voltage when and when . (8 )

Q.7 a. Sketch the circuit of a Schmitt trigger and explain its operation. What is hysteresis? (8 )

b. In an astable multivibrator, the base resistors are of 12.5 and the capacitors are of 0.01 . Determine the PRR (Pulse Repetition Rate). (8 )

Q.8 a. Draw the circuit diagram of a bridge rectifier and derive its ripple factor and efficiency with and without filter. (8 )

b. A single-phase full-wave rectifier uses two diodes, the internal resistance of each being 20 . The transformer rms secondary voltage from centre tap to each end of secondary is 50V and load resistance is 980 . Find
(i) the mean load current
(ii) rms load current and output efficiency. (8 )

Q.9 a. Show how Karnaugh map is used for minimisation of Boolean functions. (8 )

b. Simplify the following expression using Boolean algebra technique(8 )

Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 100

NOTE: There are 9 Questions in all.

Question 1 is compulsory and carries 20 marks. Answer to Q. 1. must be written in the space provided for it in the answer book supplied and nowhere else.

Out of the remaining EIGHT Questions answer any FIVE Questions. Each question carries 16 marks.

Any required data not explicitly given, may be suitably assumed and stated.

Q.1 Choose the correct or best alternative in the following: (2x10)

a. The LTI system represented by the characteristic equation is

(A) not stable.

(B) stable.

(C) marginally stable.

(D) stable, or unstable depending on whether the system is causal or


b. If a DTFS coefficient is a complex number, then there must be another DTFS coefficient for the same signal that is:

(A) zero. (B) .

(C) a real number. (D) its complex conjugate.

c. The condition: must be satisfied by a system that is :

(A) memoryless. (B) BIBO stable.

(C) causal. (D) invertible.

d. The Fourier transform of a unit step function

(A) does not exist. (B) is another unit step.

(C) contains impulse functions. (D) is .

e. The final value of is:

(A) 2 (B) 1

(C) (D) 5

f. Given the z-transform, the corresponding DTFT, if it exists, is obtained by replacing z by:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

g. For a system with input and impulse response , the z-transform of the output is:

(A) 0. (B) 1

(C) z. (D) .

h. Typical RoC (hatched part) of a 2-sided signal x(n) is given by:

Im z-plane Im z-plane

(A) (B)

Im z-plane Im z-plane
(C) Re (D) Re

i. A periodic signal x(n) of period is added to another periodic signal of period . Then the period of the resulting signal is, always,

(A) (B)

(C) LCM of and (D) GCD of and

j. The probability density function of a random variable X is ae-bx u (x). Then

(A) a and b can be arbitrary (B) a = b/2

(C) a = b (D) a = 2b

Answer any FIVE Questions out of EIGHT Questions.

Each question carries 16 marks.

Q.2 a. Find the Fourier series representation of the signal x(t) shown in Fig.1. Sketch the magnitude and phase spectra. (12)

b. Determine the step-response s(t) of the LTI system characterized by

the impulse response . (4)

Q.3 a. Determine the time domain signal x(t) whose FT is shown in Fig.2. (12)

b. With reference to Fig.3, express x(t) in terms of g(t). (4)

Q.4 a. Given (Fig.4), evaluate the following, without explicitly computing x(n):

(i) x(0) (ii) (iii) (12)

b. Find the DTFS of the signal . (4)

Q.5 a. For the LTI system described by the impulse response , determine and sketch the frequency response. Name the type of filter the system represents. (8)

b. Find :

(i) the continuous-time signal x(t), given

. (4)

(ii) , given . (4)

Q.6 a. Show that Laplace transform converts time differentiation into multiplication by s and integration into division by s. Consider zero initial conditions. Hence, find , given . (8)

b. Evaluate:

(i) X(s) for all s and RoC, given .

(ii) , given and . (4+4)

Q.7 a. Use power-series expansion to determine the time-domain signal x(n), given: for the two cases:

(i) , (ii) (8)

b. Determine:

(i) the z-transform of , starting from the definition.

(ii) The input to the system, using z-transforms, given output and impulse response . (4+4)

Q.8 a. Consider . For the two cases:

(i) and (ii) , without explicitly computing x(n), determine whether the DTFT of the corresponding time-signal exists. Identify the DTFT if it exists. (8)

b. Calculate:

(i) the Nyquist rate and Nyquist interval for the signal x(t) = sinc(200t).

(ii) the mean values and mean-square value , given the probability density function . (4+4)

Q.9 a. Define the term spectral density and determine its relation with the auto-correlation function. (4)

b. Determine the convolution of the sequence with

the sequence . (4)

c. A stationary random process has an autocorrelation function of the form: . Find the spectral density of this process and its value when . (8)
How to Write an Informix SQL Query

Locate the table and row you want to query. In order to do this, you must have a piece of information to use to locate that row. In this example let's imagine we are looking for an invoice number, but we only have the order number. You must use the order number to look up the invoice number in the invoice table.

Type "set isolation dirty read;". This allows you to access tables through your Informix SQL query that may be in use by someone else on the system.

Type "select * from" and the name of the invoice table. The asterisk tells the system to show you every row in that table. If you know which row you want to look up with your Informix SQL query, you can type the name of that row instead of the asterisk.

Type "where", the name of the row holding the order number and "=" and the order number in quotations. This instructs the database engine to extract the invoice column that corresponds with that row.

Run your Informix SQL query. The system returns the information from the invoice table that matches that order number.
The complete code for this tutorial can be found at the bottom in the "tips" section.

Create a junk MySQL query in your PHP file. I just put in random characters for the "user name" and "password" fields in the mysql_connect() statement. You should get an error similar to that shown in the image.

The error shown may be good when you're developing, but you wouldn't want everyone to see what your user name and host name are. You could get hacked, and that's never a good thing. We also don't want to just silence all errors (@), since if there is an error we want to know what it is. So, we'll use a log file (in this case, log.txt). We're going to create a function called writeErrors().

We want to tell our function to open the file log.txt for writing whenever it is called, by using the function fopen(). fopen() needs at least 2 parameters - file name (in this case, log.txt) and write method (we'll be using a+). a+ tells fopen() to open the file, and write to the end of it; if the file doesn't exist, create it. We need to make fopen() to definition of a variable ($handle), because we'll use it later.

Now that our file is open, we want our function to write whatever error it receives (we'll get to that in a few steps) to file. We'll use the function fwrite(), which takes two parameters : handle (from above, $handle) and what to write (in this case ($error).

Finally, now that we're written to the file, we're going to finalize our writing by closing it. We'll use the function fclose(). fclose() takes a single parameter - handle ($handle).

Outside of our function, we'll need to call the function. So, we'll change our MySQL query to use it. When we call writeErrors(), we'll be adding a new paramenter - mysql_error(). We need to return to our function text, and tell it to expect the error message by adding $error in the parenthesis. As the code stands, whichever error is sent to writeErrors() will be written too log.txt.

The error message we get from the previous step won't be very descriptive, so we want to add a few pieces of information, namely the file name (__FILE__), the line number (__LINE__), the user's IP address ($_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']) and the date/time of the error. We'll also want to add "@" before the query to prevent the errors from showing themselves to the user(s).

We also need to update the function writeErrors() to handle the new parameters, and generate a complete error. When you put the error into your PHP editor, use "\n" for a line break, and add tabs (if you want) to make the output more readable. At the very least, every error should end with "\n" to separate individual errors.

Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 100

NOTE: There are 9 Questions in all.

Question 1 is compulsory and carries 20 marks. Answer to Q. 1. must be written in the space provided for it in the answer book supplied and nowhere else.

Out of the remaining EIGHT Questions answer any FIVE Questions. Each question carries 16 marks.

Any required data not explicitly given, may be suitably assumed and stated.

Answer any FIVE Questions out of EIGHT Questions.

Each question carries 16 marks.

Q.2 a. Consider the function f (x, y) defined by

Find and .

Is differentiable at (0, 0)? Justify your answer. (8 )

b. Find the extreme values of subject to the constraints and . (8 )

Q.3 a. Find all critical points of and determine relative extrema at these critical points. (8 )

b. Find the second order Taylor expansion of about the point . (4)

c. Change the order of integration in the following double integral and evaluate it : . (4)

Q.4 a. Solve the differential equation . (4)

b. Solve the differential equation . (6)

c. Find the general solution of the differential equation . (6)

Q.5 a. Find the general solution of the differential equation (8 )

b. Find the linear Taylor series polynomial approximation to the function about the point (1, 2). Obtain the maximum absolute error for the polynomial approximation in the region , . (8 )

Q.6 a. Find the general solution of the differential equation . (9)

b. Show that the eigenvalues of a Hermitian matrix are real. (7)

Q.7 a. Using Frobenius method, find two linearly independent solutions of the differential equation . (10)

b. Solve the following system of equations by matrix method:(6)

Q.8 a. Express the polynomial in terms of Legendre polynomials. (8 )

b. Let be the Bessel function of order . Show . (8 )

Q.9 a. If A is a diagonalizable matrix and f (x) is a polynomial, then show that f (A) is also diagonalizable. (7)

b. Let. Find the matrix P so that is a diagonal matrix. (9)
Electronics & Communications Engineering term end University Question paper

1. Derive an equation for the voltage and current in a line having a length of L and also at the sending end and receiving end voltage and current. (15)

2. Express the various components, if the parallel plates which having infinte length in Y & Z direction that are kept in a non-conducting region. (15)

3. A standard air filled rectangular wave guide with dimensions a=8.5cm, & b=4.3cm is fed by a 4GHz carrier from co-axial cable. Determine if a TE11 mode will be propagated. If so calculate Vp & Vg. (10)

4. A transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 200? terminated bya load of 400+j200?. Find (a) SWR, (b) K, (c) Zin at S=0.7? from the load, (d) input admittance at a distance of 0.7? from the load, (e) position of Vmax and Vmin. (10)

5. find the normalized load impedance with (a) K=0.5?0? (b) K=0.5?60 (c) K=-1, (d) K=0.3?-30, (e) K=j (10)

6. Find the primary and secondary constants of the line 50km long when ZOC measured by a bridge at 700Hz is 286?-40? ? and ZSC = 1520?16?. (15)

7. For a frequency of 6000MHz and phase separation of 7cm, find the following for TE10 mode. (i) critical frequency,(ii),(iii)a & for f=0.8fc, (iv) a & for f=1.25fc, (v) ?c. (10)

8. A gold parallel strip line has following parameters relative dielectric constant of Teflon erd = 2.1, strip width w = 26mm, separation distance d= 5mm, conductivity of gold sc= 4.7*107 mho/m, frequency f= 10GHz. Determine (a) surface resistance of the gold strip, (b) Characteristics impedance of the strip line, (c) phase velocity. (10)

9. A certain microstrip line has the following parameters er = 5.23, h = 7mils, t=2.8mils, and w=10mils. Calculate the characteristics impedance of the line (5)
Transmission lines and wave guides

1. Derive an equation for the voltage and current in a line having a length of L and also at the sending end and receiving end voltage and current. (15)

2. Express the various components, if the parallel plates which having infinte length in Y & Z direction that are kept in a non-conducting region. (15)

3. A standard air filled rectangular wave guide with dimensions a=8.5cm, & b=4.3cm is fed by a 4GHz carrier from co-axial cable. Determine if a TE11 mode will be
propagated. If so calculate Vp & Vg. (10)

4. A transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 200? terminated bya load of 400+j200?. Find (a) SWR, (b) K, (c) Zin at S=0.7? from the load, (d) input admittance at a distance of 0.7? from the load, (e) position of Vmax and Vmin. (10)

5. find the normalized load impedance with (a) K=0.5?0? (b) K=0.5?60 (c) K=-1, (d) K=0.3?-30, (e) K=j (10)

6. Find the primary and secondary constants of the line 50km long when ZOC measured by a bridge at 700Hz is 286?-40? ? and ZSC = 1520?16?. (15)

7. For a frequency of 6000MHz and phase separation of 7cm, find the following for TE10 mode. (i) critical frequency,(ii),(iii)a & for f=0.8fc, (iv) a & for f=1.25fc, (v) ?c. (10)

8. A gold parallel strip line has following parameters relative dielectric constant of Teflon erd = 2.1, strip width w = 26mm, separation distance d= 5mm, conductivity of gold
sc= 4.7*107 mho/m, frequency f= 10GHz. Determine (a) surface resistance of the gold strip, (b) Characteristics impedance of the strip line, (c) phase velocity. (10)

9. A certain microstrip line has the following parameters er = 5.23, h = 7mils, t=2.8mils, and w=10mils. Calculate the characteristics impedance of the line (5)

Time: 4 Hours June 2006 Max. Marks: 100


1. (a) There are SEVEN questions in all and these are arranged in three Sections A, B
and C.
(b) Sections A and B are compulsory and carry 20 marks and 32 marks respectively.
(c) Out of remaining 5 questions (of 16 marks each) in Section C students are
required to answer any 3 questions.

2. Detach this sheet from the question paper and write answers on this sheet only
on Pages 1 & 2. Attach it to the main drawing sheet. Remaining questions are to
be answered on the main drawing sheet.

3. All dimensions given are in mm. Use suitable values of any missing and
mismatching dimensions.

4. Use BIS Code: SP: 46-1988 for all drawings and do not rub off construction lines.

Roll No.............................

SECTION A (Compulsory) - Marks - 20
Note : - Answer this on question paper itself and annex with the
drawing sheet.

Q1. Choose the correct or best alternative in the following: (2 x 10 = 20)
a When a point lies in H.P. its front view will lie
(A) on X-Y line.
(B) below X-Y line.
(C) above X-Y line.
(D) behind X-Y line. ______________

b The appropriate position of the title block in the drawing sheet is
(A) right hand bottom corner.
(B) right hand top corner.
(C) left hand top corner.
(D) left hand bottom corner. ______________


Signature of Suptd/invigilator

c The ratio of the length of the drawing of an object to the length of the object is called
(A) resulting fraction.
(B) representative figure.
(C) representative fraction.
(D) reduced fraction. ______________

d If D is the diameter of a sphere, its length in the isometric projection will be
(A) (B)
(C) D (D) ______________

e Shape of the section obtained when a cone is cut by a plane passing through the apex and center of the base of the cone, is
(A) parabola. (B) circle.
(C) ellipse. (D) triangle. _____________

f A hexagonal headed bolt and nut are more common in use as compared to square headed bolt and nut because
(A) they offer more flat area for spanner
(B) they do not get loose easily
(C) their efficiency is high
(D) they can be tightened in narrow spaces. ______________

g If the hole is designated as 40 Hg and shaft as 40 , what type of fit is indicated?
(A) clearance (B) interference
(C) transition (D) no relation between these two ______________

h If there is angular misalignment between two shafts which are to be joined, which coupling will be used?
(A) protected flange coupling. (B) muff coupling.
(C) compression coupling. (D) flexible coupling. ______________

i Make a sketch of the brasses in a plummer block journal bearing for preventing its rotation

j The front elevation and plan of an object are two identical concentric squares, sketch the side view.

SECTION B (Compulsory)

Q.2 Fig. 1 on page 4 shows the details of a Footstep Bearing. Draw the following views of the assembly to a scale full size (1 : 1).

(i) Front view, left half in section.
(ii) Top view, left half in section.

Show main dimensions. Print the title and draw the projection symbol. (16+10+4+1+1=32)

Answer any THREE Questions. Each question carries 16 marks.

Q.3 A hexagonal plate 30 mm sides is resting on one of its sides in V.P. and is inclined at to H.P. Its surface is inclined at to V.P. Drawing its projections. (16)

Q.4 A square prism of base 30 mm and axis length 60 mm is resting on H.P. on one of its longer edges with its axis inclined at to V.P. One of the faces containing the resting edge is inclined at to V.P. Draw its projections. (16)

Q.5 A hexagonal pyramid of base sides 25 mm and axis length 50 mm is resting on H.P. on one of its triangular faces with its axis parallel to V.P. It is cut by a vertical plane passing through the topmost base edge of the solid. Draw its top view, front view and true shape of the section. (16)

Q.6 A right circular cone of base diameter 80 mm and height 90 mm is resting on H.P. on its base. A cylinder of diameter 40 mm with its axis horizontal penetrates the cone centrally 30 mm above the base, the axes are intersecting at right angles. Draw the curves of intersection in plan and elevation. (16)

Q.7 a. Draw a schematic representation of the following for clearance fit of a shaft:
Zero line, basic size, maximum size, minimum size, upper deviation, lower deviation, tolerance, tolerance zone.

b. Draw two views of a double riveted lap joint for connecting two plates 16 mm thick. Show the main dimensions. (8+8=16)

DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS University Question paper

Question 1 is compulsory and carries 20 marks. Answer to Q. 1. A must be written in the space provided for it in the answer book supplied and nowhere else.

Out of the remaining EIGHT Questions answer any FIVE Questions. Each question carries 16 marks.

Any required data not explicitly given, may be suitably assumed and stated.

Q.1 A Choose the correct or best alternative in the following: (2x10)

a. Aliasing occurs, when the Nyquist rate is

(A) 2 fm (B) 3 fm

(C) 2.5 fm (D) 1.2 fm

b. If the absolute value of the two representation levels in a one-bit quantizer used in the delta modulation is denoted as '', then the step size of the quantiser will be related to '' by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

c. For cellular telephones, the telephone industry benchmark for the size of the antenna is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

. The general analytic expression


(A) an ASK signalling (B) a FSK signalling

(C) a PSK signalling (D) an APK signalling

e. For a general case of an M-ary PSK, the relationship between symbol rate Rs and the baseband bit rate Rb is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

f. The redundancy of an (n, k) code is defined as

(A) n/k (B) k/n

(C) (D)

B State which of the statement is true and which are false.

g. One of the most important metrics of performance in digital communication systems is a plot of frequency versus S/No

h. For two waveforms and to be orthogonal the condition to be satisfied is .

i. In the study of eye pattern, the sampling time that corresponds to the maximum eye opening yields the smallest protection against noise.

j. Hamming weight of a code word is equal to its hamming distance from the all-ones vector.

Answer any FIVE Questions out of EIGHT Questions.

Each question carries 16 marks.

a. Can analog information be character encoded as in the case of textual data for processing with a digital communication system? Comment on your answer. What is sampling process? What is the output of the sampling process called? Justify your answer. What do you mean by 'Nyquist rate'? (7)

b. Discuss briefly the sampling theorem using the frequency shifting property of the Fourier transform. (6)
c. A 100-Hz sinusoid x (t) is sampled at 240 Hz. Has aliasing occurred? How many full periods of x (t) are required to obtain one period of the sampled signal? (3)

3 a. What is the name given to the class of baseband signals obtained by encoding each quantised PAM sample into a digital word? With a sketch for illustration discuss its essential features. (10)

b. Consider an audio signal with spectral components limited to the frequency band 300 to 3300 Hz. Assume that a sampling rate of 8000 samples per second will be used to generate a PCM signal. Assume that the ratio of peak signal power to average quantisation noise power at the output needs to be 30 dB.

(i) What is the minimum number of uniform quantisation levels needed? And what is the minimum number of bits per sample needed?

(ii) Compute the bit duration. (6)
.4 a. When the received waveforms in the case of baseband signalling are already in a pulse-like form, why then is a demodulator required to recover the pulse waveforms? What do you mean by white noise? Whenever a communication channel is designated as an AWGN channel, what is it that you are informed? (7)

b. With a neat schematic, describe briefly the typical demodulation and detection functions of a digital receiver. (9)

Q.5 a. Distinguish between 'baseband modulation' and 'bandpass modulation'. List the basic coherent bandpass signalling schemes used in digital communication system. (7)
b. Illustrate the features of the PSK modulation format and briefly describe the coherent detection of BPSK. (6)
c. Show that in a QPSK system, the symbol rate is equal to half the baseband bit rate. (3)

Q.6 a. What do you mean by 'probability of symbol error'? Deduce the expression for the probability of bit error for coherently detected BPSK. (10)

b. Calculate the bit error probability for a BPSK system with a bit rate of one megabit per second. The received waveforms are coherently detected with a matched filter. Suppose that the single-sided noise power spectral density is and that signal power and energy per bit are normalised relative to a one-ohm load. The signal amplitude is 10 mV. (6)

Q.7 a. Mention the two study areas into which channel coding can be partitioned and define each area of study. What does a block code represent? When do you say that a block code is linear? Define a generator matrix for a linear block code. (9)

b. Construct the standard array for a (6, 3) block code. (7)

Q.8 a. Define the following:

(i) The Hamming weight. (ii) The Hamming distance.

Establish the relations between the Hamming distance between code words and the Hamming weight. (5)

b. Write a short note on BCH codes. (5)

c. Illustrate a (2,1) convolutional encoder with constraint length of three by the connection pictorial representation and briefly explain. What are the other methods used for representing a convolutional encoder? (6)

Q.9 a. What do you mean by spread spectrum technique? What is the use of Low Probability Of Detection (LPD) communication systems? What is the objective in the design of LPD systems? What is a radiometer? (6)

b. How does a pseudorandom signal differ from a random one? Why the name 'pseudonoise' is used in spread spectrum technique? What is "direct sequence" as used in SS technique? (5)

c. In the figure shown below a bit stream containing traffic data at a rate of Rb converted to have levels of +1 and -1 V corresponding to the logical states '1' and '0' is to be multiplied by a PN sequence also with +1 and -1 V. If the spreading code sequence is 1110100,

i. What is the spreading sequence interms of voltage levels

ii. What is the chip rate and what is the length of the transmitted sequence that results for each data bit?

iii. Illustrate the outgoing spread bit stream interms of voltage levels. (5)

Experience: [blink]5 - 10 Years[/blink]

Location: Hyderabad / Secunderabad

Education: B.Sc - Computers;B.Tech/B.E. - Any Specialization;BCA - Computers , M.Sc  Computers;M.Tech - Any Specialization;MCA - Computers

Desired :  University degree in computer science / information technology

5+ years experience working as a Microsoft .NET Technologies and strong database skills

5+ years experience with building data models using relational and dimensional modeling

Must have strong hands-on recent SQL Server T-SQL development

Experience with OLAP technologies, .Net programming, XML

Creating and consuming SOAP Web Services

Standards-compliant web development (HTML/CSS/JavaScript)

J-script (client side scripting) and Ajax

Excellent understanding of SQL 2000/2005 database systems and architectures.

Must be self-motivated and self-directed

Provide application support as and when needed

Excellent written and verbal communication skills.

Excellent interpersonal skills.

Ability to work independently, usually without supervision.

Job Responsibilities:

Good programming, code development, code debugging and testing skills, troubleshooting skills, and experience with numerous operating systems, development environments, programming languages and architectures

Good decision making and problem solving skills and experience with application projects

Developing integrations and migrations of data.

Create, tune, and support databases to optimize their usefulness and meet organizational goals and expectations

Collaborate with clients to determine database requirements and translate these requirements into project tasks and deliverables

Proactively monitor databases to meet performance and service-level commitments

Implement structural DB changes, migrate changes to production environment

Perform troubleshooting and problem resolution for database-related problems

Should be able to demonstrate a working relationship with groups within or outside of IT to help implement technical solutions.

Ability to work independently, and as a team member, while using discretion in decision making and sound judgment in problem solving

Knowledge of development methodologies and technologies, such as Object Oriented design and analysis, n-tier architectures and distributed environments

Capacity planning is required to create and maintain the databases.

Enforcing and maintaining database constraints to ensure availability and integrity of the databases.

Effectively manage the day-to-day tasks and activities to effectively meet the project deliverables and schedule
Staying up-to-date on the latest database technologies and standards.

Collaborate with other developers and IT operation team to design and implement systems that will provide long term scalability, reliability, and performance for IVs business systems

Company Profile : iNEK Technologies is a full-service global provider of information technology and business service solutions. These include Application Development, Resource Augmentation, IT Support and Offshore Services. iNEK develops customized solutions based on the specific requirements of our customers.

iNEK has demonstrated a remarkable ability to respond to a rapidly changing business environment, while maintaining consistent growth year after year. Annual revenues continue to grow rapidly due, in part, to our commitment to emerging technologies and key customer strategy, which focuses our business and resources on those customers who view us as a strategic partner.

Executive Name:HR

Apply : Email ur cv to hr@inekinfo.com

Telephone:  91-40-64555774

Walkin Date : 18th & 19th August 2008

Walkin Time : 10.00 am to 6.00 pm

Website: http://www.inekinfo.com
Larsen & Toubro Infotech Limited

Skills Required : Documentum

Experience Required : 2 - 6 Year(s)

Job Location : Chennai

Walkin Date : 18 August 2008 - 21 August 2008

Walkin Time : 10:00 a.m - 02:00 p.m

Job Description :

Walk-in for Documentum professionals from 18th Aug 08 to 21st Aug 08 between 10 am to 2 pm

Immediate opening for Documentum professionals at our Chennai center.

Job Description:

Providing technical support for the Documentum, including system administration functions such as user and group management, monitoring the system, testing releases and supporting the scanning process.

Knowledge of products like documentum content server, Documentum desktop clients and web top applications.
Experience in necessary configurations, Development, enhancement ad modification of the existing documentation based applications.

Pls walk in to following address between 10 am - 2 pm with your updated resume and a passport size photograph,Last Drawn Salary Slip
Note:If you are not able to come for the walkin pls send your resume to nvk(at)lntinfotech.com

Walkin Venue :

Vinodu Kumar
Larsen & Toubro Infotech Ltd

Larsen & Toubro Infotech Ltd,
L&T Infotech Park
Mount Poonamallee Road, Manapakkam
Chennai,Tamil Nadu,INDIA 600089
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